A man has a farm irrigated by rainwater, and the cost of preparing it may exceed forty percent of its produce. How is its zakah calculated?

The questioner : Today, between Maghrib and 'Isha', we sat in the mosque with some of the brothers, and they raised a question about a man who has land. Naturally, he is responsible for sowing and plowing it. He spends a significant amount of money, which may reach forty percent of the value of its produce. However, he does not irrigate it, for example, with a spring or with water he brings to it; rather, it is watered by rain. So, is it treated as rain-fed produce, or is it treated as irrigated produce and the like?

The Shaykh : I mean, is it rain-fed or irrigated?

The questioner : Yes, it is rain-fed.

The Shaykh : I mean, I am asking: is it under the ruling of...?

The questioner : Yes, this one.

The Shaykh : Or the ruling of irrigation.

The questioner: Correct.

The Shaykh : Okay, he spends forty percent, as you said, for what purpose?

The questioner : To prepare the land, to prepare it by plowing it the first time and the second time.

The Shaykh : All lands require this. Is there anything unusual about it?

The questioner : I said the same thing, O Shaykh.

The Shaykh: All right.

The questioner : But he said: I mean, the expenses are high and so on, and I don't know what, so does this change it?

The Shaykh : It does not change it.

The questioner : It does not change the ruling itself.

The Shaykh: Yes.