The conflict between the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and his actions: do the actions specify the words?

The questioner : ... his words, and also, do the actions of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) shift the ruling from obligatory to recommended?

The Shaykh : What is the first part of the question?

The questioner : Do the actions of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) restrict or specify his words?

The Shaykh : Do his actions specify his words? Is there anything else? Do his actions shift the ruling from obligatory to recommended?

The questioner : That is possible in both cases, provided it is established that his action came after his word. In that case, his action is considered an explanation of his word. Similarly, if his action comes contrary to his command, meaning after the command, that is evidence that the command is not for obligation. However, it should be noted in both cases that the action of the Messenger (peace be upon him) must not be a one-time occurrence; rather, it must be repeated by him such that it is most likely that his action was an explanation of his word and his command. This is a point that is difficult to verify, namely that the action came after the word or command. Verifying this is very difficult. Therefore, the scholars say that the default rule for a word that contradicts an action is to attempt to reconcile them; if that is not possible, the word is given precedence over the action.
Similarly, the default rule for a command is obligation, unless there is an indicator. The indicator may be from his words (peace be upon him) or from his actions. I mentioned earlier that for his action to be an indicator shifting the command from obligation to recommendation, it must be established that he (peace be upon him) performed the action more than once after the command to do the thing. In this case, his action is an explanation of his command.
I said that a word may be accompanied by another word of his (peace be upon him) that clarifies that his command is not for obligation. The evidence for this is abundant. Among that is his saying (peace and blessings be upon him) But the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) did not want to make things difficult for his Companions, so he did not command them. This is evidence that a command implies obligation, because he (peace be upon him) says And if the command did not imply obligation, there would have been no need for the Messenger (peace be upon him) to say such words. But this is clear evidence that a command necessitates obligation. He knew that if he commanded them with a command that necessitates obligation, such as using the miswak before every prayer, and in some narrations, delaying the 'Isha' prayer to the middle of the night, it would cause hardship for his Ummah. Therefore, he used this expression to convey two benefits to us.
The first benefit is that the default rule for a command is obligation. The second benefit is that using the miswak before prayer and delaying the 'Isha' prayer to the middle of the night are not obligatory.
Similarly, for example, his saying (peace and blessings be upon him) He said regarding the three: It is disliked for people to adopt it as a sunnah, meaning a binding sunnah. So he followed up his saying with his saying regarding the third: so that people understand that this prayer is not obligatory.
Similarly, his saying (peace be upon him) He said in the third instance: out of dislike that people would take it as a Sunnah.
This is the answer to the previous question.
When he commanded to straighten the rows:

The questioner : ... .