If one agrees with the disbelievers in something without intending to, is one imitating them, or does it depend on intention as in the hadith (Actions are but by intentions)?

The questioner : Shaykh, before we ask our question, we just want to add a comment, based on the premise...

The Shaykh : Please go ahead.

The questioner : Regarding the issue that actions are but by intentions, I, as a Muslim, work in a difficult profession. I wear my watch on my right wrist, but there are people who wear it on the right and use only their right hand in their work, which can cause a lot of harm. So here the issue of harm arises, and they wear it on the left. Here, the intention is not to imitate the disbelievers; the intention is to avoid the harm of the tightness. So now, if he agrees with the disbelievers in an action by chance, or not by chance but due to the nature of his work, is this also contrary to the ruling? That is the question.

The Shaykh : No. Before commenting, the comment is acceptable.

The questioner : Please, Shaykh.

The Shaykh : It is true that actions are but by intentions. And peace be upon you, welcome, how are you? But in order to correct the argumentation, we need to remind all the present of the correct meaning of this hadith If we know this meaning, it will become clear to us that we often force the hadith and place it in a position where it is not appropriate to place it. And peace be upon you and blessings. Please. There is no god but Allah. His saying (peace and blessings be upon him) means that righteous actions are by righteous intentions. So quoting the hadith here does not match reality, and citing it is a separate matter, and it is likely clear because the full hadith points to this meaning. The second of the common errors today on the tongues of Muslims, and this is from the effect of their imitation of the Westerners, just as we were in the style of writing earlier, right and left. So their saying now "I, as a Muslim," this is not an Islamic expression, because the "ka" (as) here, its original meaning is the "ka" of comparison. And if the phrase is interpreted on its apparent meaning, the speaker means "I am not a Muslim, but I resemble a Muslim." Because when you say "Zayd is like a lion," what does it mean? He is not a lion, but he is described with a characteristic of the lion. Similarly, when the speaker says "I, as a Muslim," it means that I am not a Muslim, but I resemble a characteristic of the Muslims. Here also, it is not said "actions are but by intentions," why? Because this action is not righteous. The person's saying is a mistake, not a righteous action. Rather, here it is said as the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) directed us in many of his hadiths, among which is his saying And the other hadith with the same meaning So where did this word come from? This translation "as a Muslim" is a translation of a foreign phrase that came by imitation and entered the usage of Islamic writers, so one of them says "I, as a Muslim," "I, as a doctor," meaning "I, as a Muslim" and "I, as a doctor." You are a doctor, so the correct phrase is "In my capacity as a Muslim" or "As a Muslim, I say so and so, I do so and so," and so on. There is no need here to resort to figurative interpretation, because the original rule is to avoid figurative interpretation. And peace be upon you and the mercy of Allah and His blessings. After this note and that, I hear what you have of the question.