Can it be said that there is a relationship of generality and specificity between the two hadiths, such that it is said that it is not permissible for a woman to take from her husband's wealth except with his permission?

The questioner : ... regarding the same issue, something comes to my mind, meaning, can it not be said that there is a relationship of generality and specificity between the two hadiths, so that it is not permissible for a woman to take from her wealth except with her husband's permission, except in the case of charity?

The Shaykh : No, no, that is not the case, because the exception "except with his permission" was not mentioned here, and usually, she gives charity like this, yes?