Is the negation in the hadith (whoever has never done any good) a negation of the type of action or a negation of its perfection?

The questioner : What do you say about their interpretation of the statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) that the word or the phrase is not to be taken at its apparent meaning?

The Shaykh : Fine, and why is that?

The questioner : Because it was stated in the manner of informing the reader that it is part of the negation of the perfection of the action, not its type.

The Shaykh : Let us develop the question: what is the evidence?

The questioner : The evidence is from the statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):

The Shaykh : Fine, when disbelief is mentioned, is it intended to mean disbelief accompanied by apostasy?

The questioner : No, they say no, but the prayer...

The Shaykh : No problem, no problem. If they say no, then what is the dividing line between a disbelief in a text that is called apostasy?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : And in another text it is not apostasy, and both of the matters mentioned in the two texts are actions.

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : What is the difference between this and that?

The questioner : The distinction is very extensive, and detailing it with them is long, through interpretations such as that one who leaves part of the action is not like one who leaves the entire action, or that one who resembles the disbelievers in some of their actions is not like one who resembles some of their actions that the Shari'ah has explicitly stated are disbelief that takes one out of the religion.

The Shaykh : Have you answered the question?

The questioner : This is their answer.

The Shaykh : No, I do not want their answer.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Do you feel that what you are saying is their answer is the answer to my question?

The questioner: No...

The Shaykh : So what is the benefit, my brother? I want our student brothers to be aware that a case is not established merely by a claim. I am asking: what is the difference between a disbelief mentioned in a hadith like this and a disbelief mentioned in another hadith, where in both texts the matter attributed to disbelief is an action?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : The common factor is the action, so why is this action apostasy and that action not apostasy? For example, he (peace be upon him) said: Is this apostasy or less than that? Likewise, for example, his statement (peace be upon him), and there are many hadiths in this regard: What is the difference between the disbelief in the hadith about prayer and the disbelief in the hadith about fighting?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : There must be a reliable evidence that the people of the Sunnah and the community, from whom we quoted earlier, rely on, who state that action is not a condition for validity but a condition for perfection, and they do not distinguish between one action and another, provided that the believer has believed in that ruling which he was lenient in performing and acting upon. And what you quoted from them earlier regarding the meaning of is an interpretation. If the interpretation is valid in a text like this, it is possible that the interpretation is valid in their text as well. And I want to draw attention now to those who bring new concepts that revolve around declaring Muslims disbelievers because of their neglect of performing an action that the wise Lawgiver has commanded. These people should not bring anything stemming from their desires, or let us say, from their ignorance, or let us say, from their knowledge, because their knowledge, however correct and precise it may be, does not equal the knowledge of the Salaf. And here we must mention what I always and forever mention regarding the statement of Allah the Exalted: These people follow other than the path of the believers. These people do not give weight to this portion of this noble verse. That is, for them, the verse is the same whether they believe in this portion and its meaning or not. If they do not believe in it, there is no difference for them between the verse being "And whoever opposes the Messenger after the guidance has become clear to him, and they turn away, We will turn them to that which they have turned to" and the way it was revealed: So we ask them: these interpretations and exegeses that you bring, from the perspective of the Arabic language, the matter is very broad, and no one can ever stop the door of interpretation from the people, especially if it is from the people of desires. So what is the decisive, cutting matter in this issue? It is returning to what the Salaf were upon. These people, just as they do not believe in the meaning of this portion of the verse , they also, I am as certain as I am of anything, do not believe in the like of the statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): They do not believe in the like of the statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) when he was asked about the saved sect, and he said: Because they have gone out of the community, and in the other narration: They do not give any weight at all to what the righteous Salaf were upon. This is sufficient to explain their departure from the concepts of the righteous Salaf, and consequently their departure from the correct understanding of the texts of the Book and the Sunnah. It is as if you have something.