Many people fall into the error of saying, "Allah the Exalted said," after: "I seek refuge in Allah"

The Shaykh : Before answering this question, I consider it obligatory for me to point out a common error made by many students of knowledge and others. That is, when they are in a gathering of knowledge and one of them wants to cite a verse and use it as evidence, or wants to ask about its implication or about how to reconcile it with a certain hadith, the questioner says, "Allah the Mighty and Majestic said, I seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytan ," for example, or he says, "Allah the Exalted said, after I seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytan," or similar phrases. This is a pure error in which something is attributed to Allah that the speaker does not intend, but he is held accountable for the wording, and thus he falls into contradicting the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) . So when we correct some people and say to them, "Where did Allah say, 'I seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytan' ?" There is absolutely nothing of the sort. But I know, as every one of you knows, that this reader or this one citing evidence or this questioner says this phrase and mentions this seeking of refuge before the verse in order to implement or apply the saying of the Exalted . That is what they say when we object to them, reminding them that this should not be done, because your saying "Allah said, after such and such" means that Allah said, "I seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytan" . Especially if it is said, "Allah said, after I seek refuge in Allah," this "after" pertains to the phrase and does not pertain to Allah (Blessed and Exalted is He). Therefore, everyone who cites a verse intending to use it as evidence or intending to ask about it should recite it directly and not say, "Allah the Exalted said, I seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytan" , nor say, "Allah said, after I seek refuge in Allah," but rather mention it directly, saying, "How do you reconcile the saying of the Exalted with such and such a hadith?" You must be careful so that you do not fall into being held accountable for contradicting the saying of the Messenger (peace be upon him) . People always say, "By Allah, I intended it, my brother." Your intention in your heart is known only to your Lord, but the best way to express your intention is through your wording. Have you not heard the severe disapproval of the Messenger (peace be upon him) of that Companion who heard a sermon from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and stood up to show his submission, following, and obedience to the Prophet by saying, "What Allah wills and what you will, O Messenger of Allah"? What was his (peace be upon him) stance? He said, . Do you think that this Companion, by addressing his Prophet with "What Allah wills and what you will," intended to make him a partner with Allah? Certainly, no one believes in the Messenger of Allah except to flee from associating partners with Allah. So why did the Messenger (peace be upon him) exaggerate in his disapproval of him with this severe phrase ? Therefore, you should not justify your verbal errors with the correctness of your hearts. This does not justify that. It is obligatory for us, when we speak, that our speech matches our good intention and that it not be bad speech with a good intention. Rather, the wording must match what is in the heart. This is a reminder, and it benefits the believers, if Allah wills.
The research the questioner asked about is long and has many branches, so there is no room now to elaborate on such a question in answer to it. But I say that his (peace be upon him) saying is general, encompassing every prayer and every person praying, whether he is an imam, a follower, or praying alone, whether he caught the bowing or did not catch the bowing and did not recite al-Fatihah, in which case he has no prayer. Is this generality still remaining in its generality, like the generality of the verse the questioner asked about ? There is no doubt and no ambiguity that the verse remains in its generality, so it is not permissible for a Muslim in any state to do anything other than listen, be silent, and listen to the recitation of the Noble Qur'an. As for the hadith, a specification that is necessary according to the majority of scholars has entered it, with the authentic hadith, because the majority of scholars from the Companions, the Tabi'un, the mujtahid imams, and those after them said: If a Muslim enters the mosque and finds the imam bowing, and he joins him in the bowing, he has caught this rak'ah, even though he did not recite the opening of the Book. This has its evidence, and I am not now in the position of detailing them, as I indicated that I mentioned that in another gathering. So what is the ruling of this hadith regarding its generality? Is its generality still standing, or has specification entered it? The answer is affirmative. The meaning of the hadith is except for the one who caught the imam bowing and was unable to recite al-Fatihah, in which case the obligation of reciting al-Fatihah drops from him, and he catches the rak'ah by catching the bowing behind the imam. This generality of "there is no prayer" has become restricted to the one who caught the bowing, so this generality is no longer comprehensive. If we note this point only, then we establish the disagreement between the verse and the hadith on the following point: There is no disagreement between the verse and the hadith, because they flow from one source. Rather, the disagreement is between the two generalities: the generality of the verse and the generality of the hadith. So now