If al-Nawawi and other scholars transmit a certain scholarly consensus, is that consensus to be considered?

The questioner : If a transmitted consensus comes from a scholar known for his extensive knowledge, such as Imam al-Nawawi and other early scholars, and this consensus concerns the indication of an explicit text—for example, if the text indicates obligation, but they say, "They have reached a consensus that it indicates recommendation"—is this consensus a proof in such a matter?

The Shaykh : If there is no prior disagreement, it is a proof. And I want to remind you of an important distinction.