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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What do you mean when you say that for some trade goods, their zakah is taken from the goods themselves?

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The questioner : The second point: You stated that the correct view is derived from the saying of Allah, the Mighty and Majestic:
He has succeeded who purifies it قد أفلح من زكاها
.
Take, [O, Muhammad], from their wealth a وخذ من أموالهم صدقة
[At-Tawbah 9:103]
.
within whose wealth is a known right وفي أموالهم حق معلوم
[Al-Ma'arij 70:24]
. This is what establishes social solidarity between the rich and the poor. And you say: that he should give out the goods themselves. Do you mean that he should not appraise them in money and give out the very items themselves?

The Shaykh : Here I have a detailed explanation. I say that for some trade goods, the zakah is the goods themselves, because the poor person does not dispense with the need for such items. But for some others, it is not possible to give them to the poor person; in that case, they are appraised and the value is given. For example, suppose a car dealer and a millionaire; it may be obligatory for him to give not just one car, but several cars. To whom does he give them? The poor person does not need a car. So, he appraises the portion that his soul is pleased to give, believing that he purifies and purifies his soul with it, and then distributes it to the poor and the needy within the limits of what he knows. So, there are two categories: one category is in need of the goods being distributed to the poor and the needy, and they do not need to sell them to benefit from their value. The other category, as we mentioned, is appraised and the value of these trade goods is given to the poor and the needy, not the goods themselves.
Source www.al-albany.com

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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