Explaining the harms of interpreting the term *istiwa'* (rising above the Throne) as *istiwla'* (seizing control)
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : And how can we say "seized control"? Then I say to you, my brothers, if we interpret *istiwa'* as *istiwla'*, it would be permissible for us to say "He seized control of the earth," "He seized control of the mountain," and "He seized control of everything." Why? Because He has seized control of everything. Is it possible for a believer to say that Allah seized control of the earth? It is absolutely impossible under any circumstances. And if you say that *istiwa'* and *istiwla'* are synonyms, you are compelled to say "He seized control of the earth" just as you say "He seized control of the Throne"; otherwise, your interpretation is also invalid. My brothers, He created the heavens and the earth in six days, then He *istawa* (rose above the Throne). What does this imply? What does it imply? It implies sequence and succession. So, who owned the Throne when He created the heavens and the earth? Who?
The student: For Allah.
The Shaykh : Do not seek forgiveness from Allah, my people. He created, then He *istawa* (rose above the Throne), then He *istawla* (seized control). If He created and then seized control, it would mean that someone other than Him owned the Throne when He created the heavens and the earth, and that after He created the heavens and the earth, a battle took place and Allah seized control of the Throne. This is what the word *istawla* necessitates. For one to seize control of something, there must be a battle before it, just as we say "the Muslims seized control of the disbelievers' wealth." Can anyone say this? It is impossible. Therefore, the interpretation of *istiwa'* as *istiwla'* is invalid, both in terms of the Arabic language and in terms of meaning, because it entails a corrupt meaning that is not befitting of Allah.
A discussion took place in a place where I was present. One of the attendees said that so-and-so said that Allah *istawa* (rose above the Throne) means He *istawla* (seized control) of it. A common man, who does not read the Qur'an as far as I know, said, "May Allah kill him." If so, who owned the Throne before that? The common man knew that this is a corrupt meaning that no one can say. He said, "May Allah kill him." And from his heart, you know, when a word comes from the heart, it is like a bomb. He said, "May Allah kill him." Who seized control of the Throne before that, so that Allah would seize control of it from him?
The student: For Allah.
The Shaykh : Do not seek forgiveness from Allah, my people. He created, then He *istawa* (rose above the Throne), then He *istawla* (seized control). If He created and then seized control, it would mean that someone other than Him owned the Throne when He created the heavens and the earth, and that after He created the heavens and the earth, a battle took place and Allah seized control of the Throne. This is what the word *istawla* necessitates. For one to seize control of something, there must be a battle before it, just as we say "the Muslims seized control of the disbelievers' wealth." Can anyone say this? It is impossible. Therefore, the interpretation of *istiwa'* as *istiwla'* is invalid, both in terms of the Arabic language and in terms of meaning, because it entails a corrupt meaning that is not befitting of Allah.
A discussion took place in a place where I was present. One of the attendees said that so-and-so said that Allah *istawa* (rose above the Throne) means He *istawla* (seized control) of it. A common man, who does not read the Qur'an as far as I know, said, "May Allah kill him." If so, who owned the Throne before that? The common man knew that this is a corrupt meaning that no one can say. He said, "May Allah kill him." And from his heart, you know, when a word comes from the heart, it is like a bomb. He said, "May Allah kill him." Who seized control of the Throne before that, so that Allah would seize control of it from him?