Do we say that trimming the excess of the beard is based on tacit consensus, or not?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Do we mean that the Companions not objecting to Ibn 'Umar is considered consensus?
The Shaykh : No, absolutely not, it is not consensus.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : ... what became well-known, is this well-known? Because if a statement does not spread and become well-known, as you see, tacit consensus is weak, because regarding tacit consensus, one might say that this man has an excuse, ... the excuse, so tacit consensus is originally disputed and weak. If I see a scholar in whom I know there is piety and application of the Shari'ah, and I see him once doing something contrary to what the Shari'ah indicates, I find myself seeking an excuse for him, I do not say that this is an exception to the Shari'ah, I might seek an excuse for him and say that he did this for one of the reasons, so I remain silent and do not object. So if Ibn 'Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) did it and it did not become well-known among the Companions, it is not considered consensus. Then, as I told you, the basis of tacit consensus is very weak due to the possibility of an excuse for remaining silent about objecting.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes.
The Shaykh : No, absolutely not, it is not consensus.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : ... what became well-known, is this well-known? Because if a statement does not spread and become well-known, as you see, tacit consensus is weak, because regarding tacit consensus, one might say that this man has an excuse, ... the excuse, so tacit consensus is originally disputed and weak. If I see a scholar in whom I know there is piety and application of the Shari'ah, and I see him once doing something contrary to what the Shari'ah indicates, I find myself seeking an excuse for him, I do not say that this is an exception to the Shari'ah, I might seek an excuse for him and say that he did this for one of the reasons, so I remain silent and do not object. So if Ibn 'Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) did it and it did not become well-known among the Companions, it is not considered consensus. Then, as I told you, the basis of tacit consensus is very weak due to the possibility of an excuse for remaining silent about objecting.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes.