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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If disbelief appears as an indefinite noun in some narrations and as a definite noun in others, do we take it in the absolute sense?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Now, if it appears as an indefinite noun in some narrations and as a definite noun in others, do we take it in the definite sense?

The Shaykh : Like what?

The questioner :
The covenant that distinguishes between us and them is prayer; so whoever leaves it, he has committed Kufr. العهد الذي بيننا وبينهم الصلاة، فمن تركها فقد كفر
Sunan Ibn Majah 1079Sahih (Darussalam)
, the hadith of Buraydah:
Between a man and disbelief and shirk (associating partners with Allah) is the abandonment of prayer. بين الرجل وبين الكفر والشرك ترك الصلاة
?

The Shaykh : The hadith of Jabir:
between the man بين الرجل
.

The questioner : Yes, that is correct.

The Shaykh : And the hadith of Buraydah: the covenant.
His saying:
He has committed disbelief فقد كفر
, this is an absolute action; the action indicates absoluteness, so it is taken in the restricted sense, which is absolute disbelief, meaning not in the sense of any and all disbelief.

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : Here:
He has committed disbelief فقد كفر
is a past tense verb, so it is taken in that sense; "he has disbelieved" means the disbelief known in the Shari'ah.
We took three.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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