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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is its translation into a second language considered a mushaf with its own rulings?

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The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : If the translation is in the mushaf and on the margin, it is considered a mushaf with the translation on its margin, and it has the ruling of the mushaf. If it is integrated, as found in some copies of al-Jalalayn, then one looks at what is predominant. Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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