We said: The answer to the first question is that we do not accept that the proportion of the Asha'irah is to this extent relative to the other sects of the Muslims.
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The Shaykh : The answer, the answer to the first question. What is the first? The proportion.
"The answer is that we do not accept that the proportion of the Asha'irah is to this extent relative to the other sects of the Muslims, for this is a claim that requires proof through precise statistics". For example, we in the Saudi lands, if someone said that everyone in the Saudi lands is upon the methodology of the Salaf, because he does not know of anyone who contradicts this, and he said that ninety-five percent of the people of his land, in which he lived, are mostly Asha'irah, so he assumed that the Islamic lands in general are of this pattern, and he claimed this claim. And we read this in our magazines or in the newspapers, that some of those who wrote about this subject claimed this claim. Okay. "Then, even if we concede that they are to this extent or more, it does not imply their infallibility from error, for infallibility lies in the consensus of the Muslims, not in the majority". Meaning, if we hypothetically concede that they represent ninety-five percent, is this proportion considered a proof that must be followed? The answer is: No. The proof is in what? In the consensus. Okay.
"Then, even if we concede that they are to this extent or more, it does not imply their infallibility from error, for infallibility lies in the consensus of the Muslims, not in the majority". Meaning, if we hypothetically concede that they represent ninety-five percent, is this proportion considered a proof that must be followed? The answer is: No. The proof is in what? In the consensus. Okay.
"Then we say: The consensus of the Muslims in the past is established as being contrary to what the people of figurative interpretation held. For the righteous Salaf from the beginning of this Ummah—the Companions, who are the best of generations, and those who followed them in excellence, and the Imams of guidance after them—were in consensus on affirming what Allah has affirmed for Himself or what His Messenger has affirmed for Him of the names and attributes, and acting upon the texts according to their apparent meaning befitting Allah the Exalted, without distortion, denial of the divine attributes, asking how an attribute is, or comparing Allah to creation. They are the best of generations by the text of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him), and their consensus is a binding proof, because it is the requirement of the Book and the Sunnah. And the transmission of their consensus has preceded in the fourth rule of the rules of the texts of the attributes". Is it clear?
"The answer is that we do not accept that the proportion of the Asha'irah is to this extent relative to the other sects of the Muslims, for this is a claim that requires proof through precise statistics". For example, we in the Saudi lands, if someone said that everyone in the Saudi lands is upon the methodology of the Salaf, because he does not know of anyone who contradicts this, and he said that ninety-five percent of the people of his land, in which he lived, are mostly Asha'irah, so he assumed that the Islamic lands in general are of this pattern, and he claimed this claim. And we read this in our magazines or in the newspapers, that some of those who wrote about this subject claimed this claim. Okay. "Then, even if we concede that they are to this extent or more, it does not imply their infallibility from error, for infallibility lies in the consensus of the Muslims, not in the majority". Meaning, if we hypothetically concede that they represent ninety-five percent, is this proportion considered a proof that must be followed? The answer is: No. The proof is in what? In the consensus. Okay.
"Then, even if we concede that they are to this extent or more, it does not imply their infallibility from error, for infallibility lies in the consensus of the Muslims, not in the majority". Meaning, if we hypothetically concede that they represent ninety-five percent, is this proportion considered a proof that must be followed? The answer is: No. The proof is in what? In the consensus. Okay.
"Then we say: The consensus of the Muslims in the past is established as being contrary to what the people of figurative interpretation held. For the righteous Salaf from the beginning of this Ummah—the Companions, who are the best of generations, and those who followed them in excellence, and the Imams of guidance after them—were in consensus on affirming what Allah has affirmed for Himself or what His Messenger has affirmed for Him of the names and attributes, and acting upon the texts according to their apparent meaning befitting Allah the Exalted, without distortion, denial of the divine attributes, asking how an attribute is, or comparing Allah to creation. They are the best of generations by the text of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him), and their consensus is a binding proof, because it is the requirement of the Book and the Sunnah. And the transmission of their consensus has preceded in the fourth rule of the rules of the texts of the attributes". Is it clear?