Explanation of the author's statement: "...4: Those who interpreted it as seizing control were acknowledging that this is a figurative meaning. (Is there figurative language in the Qur'an?)"

The Shaykh :"Fourth, those who interpreted it as seizing control were acknowledging that this is a figurative meaning". They say that this is figurative; that *istawa* means *istawla* (seized control) is a figurative usage. There is no doubt that *istawa* literally means "to rise above," but here it is used figuratively to mean seizing control. You are aware of the dispute among scholars regarding the affirmation or denial of figurative language, either absolutely or specifically in the Qur'an. Some scholars held that there is no figurative language in the language at all. Among those who held this view, and who supported it—although people had held this view before him—were Shaykh al-Islam and Ibn al-Qayyim. Shaykh al-Islam elaborated on this in his book "Al-Iman", and Ibn al-Qayyim elaborated on it in "Mukhtasar al-Sawa'iq". Whoever wishes to refer to their statements will find that there is no figurative language in the language. Some scholars held that there is no figurative language in the Qur'an only, while it is permissible for there to be figurative language in the language. Our current issue concerns what is in the Qur'an, so it cannot be figurative. However, these *ta'til* (deniers of the divine attributes) are the ones who innovated the concept of figurative language and made it a weapon to negate many of the attributes of Allah (Mighty and Majestic).