Explanation of the author's statement: "2- The people of tashbih (likening Allah to creation) who are mu'awwidah (those who delegate the meaning), who said: Allah knows best what was intended by the texts of the attributes"
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The Shaykh :"The second group: The people of tashbih (likening Allah to creation) who are mu'awwidah (those who delegate the meaning), who said: We do not take them according to their apparent meaning, but we say: Allah knows best what was intended".
You say to him, come: "He rose above the Throne," do you take it according to its apparent meaning? He says: No, I do not take it, and what does it mean? He says: Allah knows best.
Are the people of ta'wil (figurative interpretation) better than them or not? The people of ta'wil (figurative interpretation) are better than them, because they established a meaning for them, even though they are more aggressive in their transgression, because they dared to establish what they have no knowledge of, but in terms of consideration, they are better than these people. You go to the one who delegates and say: What is the meaning of "the Face of your Lord"? He says: Its apparent meaning is not intended, its apparent meaning is not intended, so what is intended? He says: Allah knows best, I delegate, so I say: Allah knows best.
And if you reflect, you will find that their statement is contradictory. As long as you say: Allah knows best, is it not possible that Allah intended the apparent meaning? We say: Yes. If it is possible that Allah intended the apparent meaning, why do you assert the negation and say: The apparent meaning is not intended.
Yes. Listen to their doctrine. "They say: Allah knows best what was intended by the texts of the attributes, but we know that it was not intended to establish an external attribute for Him the Exalted".
Meaning: For example, you ask them, what is the meaning of "Your Lord came"? They said: Allah knows best what was intended, but we know that the actual coming was not intended, right? Is it a contradiction or not?
Well, if you say Allah knows best, why do you say: We know that it was not intended? Is it not permissible that He intended the actual apparent meaning? Yes, and yet he says: No, He did not intend that He comes, He did not intend that He rose above, He did not intend that He has hearing and sight, and the like of that. We know this, then we say: Allah knows best what was intended.
Everyone knows that this is a contradiction, and for this reason we said: "And this statement is contradictory, because their saying: 'We know that it was not intended to establish an external attribute for Him' contradicts the delegation (tafwid), because the reality of delegation is that the one who delegates does not rule by negation or affirmation. This is clear".
So both groups are astray, or not? Because they spoke about Allah without knowledge, and because they negated what is apparent in the speech of Allah and the speech of His Messenger. Is the refutation of them mentioned? No, it is not mentioned.
You say to him, come: "He rose above the Throne," do you take it according to its apparent meaning? He says: No, I do not take it, and what does it mean? He says: Allah knows best.
Are the people of ta'wil (figurative interpretation) better than them or not? The people of ta'wil (figurative interpretation) are better than them, because they established a meaning for them, even though they are more aggressive in their transgression, because they dared to establish what they have no knowledge of, but in terms of consideration, they are better than these people. You go to the one who delegates and say:
And the Face of your Lord will remain
ويبقى وجه ربكAnd if you reflect, you will find that their statement is contradictory. As long as you say: Allah knows best, is it not possible that Allah intended the apparent meaning? We say: Yes. If it is possible that Allah intended the apparent meaning, why do you assert the negation and say: The apparent meaning is not intended.
Yes. Listen to their doctrine. "They say: Allah knows best what was intended by the texts of the attributes, but we know that it was not intended to establish an external attribute for Him the Exalted".
Meaning: For example,
Your Lord will come
جاء ربكWell, if you say Allah knows best, why do you say: We know that it was not intended? Is it not permissible that He intended the actual apparent meaning? Yes, and yet he says: No, He did not intend that He comes, He did not intend that He rose above, He did not intend that He has hearing and sight, and the like of that. We know this, then we say: Allah knows best what was intended.
Everyone knows that this is a contradiction, and for this reason we said: "And this statement is contradictory, because their saying: 'We know that it was not intended to establish an external attribute for Him' contradicts the delegation (tafwid), because the reality of delegation is that the one who delegates does not rule by negation or affirmation. This is clear".
So both groups are astray, or not? Because they spoke about Allah without knowledge, and because they negated what is apparent in the speech of Allah and the speech of His Messenger. Is the refutation of them mentioned? No, it is not mentioned.