Explanation of the statement of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "After a negation or its equivalent, no one seeks another with ease."
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : The third location: "or it becomes clear
after a negation or its equivalent"
"Yabun" means: it becomes clear and apparent after a negation. You say: "There is no man in the house riding," or "Is that correct? Is there no man in the house riding?"
The student: Yes, it is correct.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: What did you specify the house with?
The Shaykh : "Ma" is a negator. "There is no man in the house"—he did not say "sleeping"—"riding." "There is no man in the house sitting." The important point is the example: "There is no man in the house sitting." "Sitting" is a state (hal) describing "man," and "man" is an indefinite noun, or is it not?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : But it is permissible for the state to come from it because it is after a negation. Similarly, "No man came to me"—what do we say?—"running." "No man came to me running," or is it not?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : "No man came to me here?"
The student: Running.
The Shaykh : "Running" is a state describing "man," even though "man" is an indefinite noun, but it is in the context of negation. Good. And the author's statement: "or its equivalent", what is the equivalent of negation?
The student: Negation.
The Shaykh : Negation! Negation is negation. Prohibition and interrogative negation. Prohibition and interrogative negation. In prohibition, the author gave as an example:
"No one seeks another with ease"
"No one seeks another with ease"
"With ease" is a state... "No one seeks": this is the subject. "Upon another": a preposition and its object, connected to the verb, as the object. "With ease": a state describing the subject of "seeks," from the first "one." And it is correct for the state to come from it, even though it is an indefinite noun, because it is in the context of prohibition. In the context of interrogative negation, you say: "Is there anyone standing?" Or is that not correct?
The student: It is valid.
The Shaykh : No, "Is there anyone in the house standing?" Because "Is there anyone standing" is not valid except in what has passed to us regarding the subject and predicate, according to the opinion of those who allow the predicate to be a state, such as: "A man standing," or "A house standing." But here it is necessary to say: "Is there anyone in the house standing?" "Standing" is a state describing "anyone," and it came as a state from it, even though it is an indefinite noun, because it is in the context of interrogative negation. "Is there anyone in the house standing," "Is there anyone in the house standing," yes.
after a negation or its equivalent"
"Yabun" means: it becomes clear and apparent after a negation. You say: "There is no man in the house riding," or "Is that correct? Is there no man in the house riding?"
The student: Yes, it is correct.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: What did you specify the house with?
The Shaykh : "Ma" is a negator. "There is no man in the house"—he did not say "sleeping"—"riding." "There is no man in the house sitting." The important point is the example: "There is no man in the house sitting." "Sitting" is a state (hal) describing "man," and "man" is an indefinite noun, or is it not?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : But it is permissible for the state to come from it because it is after a negation. Similarly, "No man came to me"—what do we say?—"running." "No man came to me running," or is it not?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : "No man came to me here?"
The student: Running.
The Shaykh : "Running" is a state describing "man," even though "man" is an indefinite noun, but it is in the context of negation. Good. And the author's statement: "or its equivalent", what is the equivalent of negation?
The student: Negation.
The Shaykh : Negation! Negation is negation. Prohibition and interrogative negation. Prohibition and interrogative negation. In prohibition, the author gave as an example:
"No one seeks another with ease"
"No one seeks another with ease"
"With ease" is a state... "No one seeks": this is the subject. "Upon another": a preposition and its object, connected to the verb, as the object. "With ease": a state describing the subject of "seeks," from the first "one." And it is correct for the state to come from it, even though it is an indefinite noun, because it is in the context of prohibition. In the context of interrogative negation, you say: "Is there anyone standing?" Or is that not correct?
The student: It is valid.
The Shaykh : No, "Is there anyone in the house standing?" Because "Is there anyone standing" is not valid except in what has passed to us regarding the subject and predicate, according to the opinion of those who allow the predicate to be a state, such as: "A man standing," or "A house standing." But here it is necessary to say: "Is there anyone in the house standing?" "Standing" is a state describing "anyone," and it came as a state from it, even though it is an indefinite noun, because it is in the context of interrogative negation. "Is there anyone in the house standing," "Is there anyone in the house standing," yes.