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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If one intends to remove only one state of ritual impurity, is his ablution valid?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If he intends to remove one state of ritual impurity and intends not to remove the other, is it valid?

The Shaykh : The school of thought says it is not valid.

The questioner : Do you know what is the stronger position?

The Shaykh : Yes, it is valid.

The questioner : Is this not playing with the two states?

The Shaykh : Yes, and if he plays, we do not agree with his play!

The questioner : So, do we not validate his ablution?

The Shaykh : We do not validate it because he intended the ablution for urination.

The questioner : And the rest?

The Shaykh : And the rest? He said, "I am not abluting for it." We say: Now, your state of ritual impurity is removed by the intention of ablution for urination. If you wish, do not intend the rest; it is not our concern, as long as the ablution was performed by the person in obedience to the command of Allah for one of the causes. The fact that he does not intend the removal of the other, we say, this does not affect it, just as if a person performed his ablution and completed it, and after performing and completing his ablution, he said, "Look, I have invalidated my ablution." It does not invalidate the ablution. Yes, that is correct.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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