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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If a person prays in forbidden clothing, does this not mean he is not acting in accordance with the command of Allah and His Messenger? Does this not invalidate his prayer?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If a person prays in forbidden clothing, he has not performed an act for which there is no command from Allah and His Messenger.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : It does not invalidate it.

The Shaykh : What is it that invalidates?

The questioner : The act.

The Shaykh : What is the act?

The questioner : The prayer, I mean.

The Shaykh : No, the prayer was not performed. The Lawgiver did not prohibit me from praying in the clothing. If He had said, "Do not pray in forbidden clothing," then it would be correct.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : This is what I am saying. So now, you have cited the hadith as evidence. I say, direct it for the purpose of evidence.

The questioner : Because ... the rejected hadith ...

The Shaykh : The rejected one for which there is no command from Allah and His Messenger is the prayer. As for wearing the clothing, it has no ruling. If wearing it had a legal ruling, we would say "valid wearing" and "defective wearing." We would say that if he wore it in a forbidden manner, it became defective and invalid. Yes, that is correct.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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