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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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On whom is zakah obligatory for one who leases land before the fruit begins to ripen?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : As we said, when we said if he sold it before it began to ripen, we said if he sold it with its roots, meaning if a person sells the palm trees all together with their roots, it is permissible even if the ripening has not begun.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : No, he leases it before the fruit appears.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes, selling it is not permissible.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : If he leases it, it becomes an accessory.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Who?

The questioner : On the lessee.

The Shaykh : But the sale is not valid.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Is it the lessee or the seller?

The questioner : On the lessee.

The Shaykh : If the lessee leases it before the fruit begins to ripen, and the fruit becomes obligatory after the lease contract, then it is upon him.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : How?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Did we not say, are you now saying sale or lease?

The questioner : Lease.

The Shaykh : Leasing is permissible.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : No, the forbidden sale does not transfer ownership to the buyer; it remains in the ownership of the seller, yes?
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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