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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If one sells the property of his son, we say he must first take ownership of it and then sell it. How is that?

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The questioner : ... All right, does he need the son's permission to take ownership of it?

The Shaykh : No.

The questioner : So it is merely an intention ... otherwise, nothing changes.

The Shaykh : If he sells it without taking ownership, he has sold his son's property.

The questioner : Yes ... Is he allowed to announce that?

The Shaykh : It is not a condition.

The questioner : He says today, "I have taken ownership of my son's money."

The Shaykh : If his son asks, "Why are you selling my money?" he says, "Because I saw a benefit for you in it."

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : ... It is not easy, this issue.

The questioner : This is not permissible.

The Shaykh : So we say the sale is not valid. If his son asks, "Why are you selling my money?" he says, "Because I took ownership of it, I took ownership of it and sold it, so it became my property."

The questioner : So, does he have to inform the son of his taking ownership of the money?

The Shaykh : In any case, according to his intention, if he sells it after taking ownership, and even if the son does not know about the taking ownership, it is not a condition.

The questioner : ... .
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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