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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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We said that one of the conditions is that there is no mahr (bridal gift) on him if he does not consummate the marriage with the woman; they are separated and he owes nothing. So why did we not obligate him to pay the full mahr al-mithl (bridal gift of equivalent value)?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : ... the condition of no mahr (bridal gift).

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : We said if the condition of no mahr (bridal gift) is stipulated.

The Shaykh : Yes, indeed.

The questioner : If he consummates the marriage with her, he owes the mahr al-mithl (bridal gift of equivalent value).

The Shaykh : Yes, indeed.

The questioner : And they are separated.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : And if he does not consummate the marriage with her, they are separated and he owes nothing.

The Shaykh : According to the second opinion, the opinion that it is a condition for validity.

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : Yes, that is correct.

The questioner : Shaykh, why? Why did we not obligate him to pay half of what ... ?

The Shaykh : Because a defective contract does not obligate anything.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Preserving the provisions, do we leave it to their choice?
Now there is no counterpart.

The questioner : Okay, now you have taken ... .

The Shaykh : Yes?
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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