Continuation of the explanation of the author's statement: "And the closure, the union, the excess growth, the separation, and the incontinence of urine and feces, and flowing sores in the private parts, and piles, and fistulas, and castration, and the removal of the testicles, and the crushing of the testicles"
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The Shaykh : Then he mentioned in this chapter the defects that are common and those that are specific, and he said: "And the closure, the union, the excess growth, the separation, and the incontinence of urine and feces" to the end of it. "The closure, the union, the excess growth, and the separation" are all defects specific to the private parts, the private parts of the female. The closure means that the private part is blocked such that the penis cannot enter it. This is undoubtedly a defect because it prevents enjoyment. Likewise, the union is when the private part allows the penis to enter, but the exit for urine and the exit for semen are joined together. The excess growth is when something extra grows in it. As for the separation, it is the opening between the exits for urine and semen. The important point is that these are all defects specific to what? To the woman's private part, so they are among the defects specific to the woman. The incontinence of urine and feces is a common, shared defect, meaning that the wife has urinary incontinence or the husband has urinary incontinence. This is undoubtedly a defect. Whoever enjoys a woman who has urinary incontinence, or a woman who enjoys a man who always has urinary incontinence. Feces means stool. Is wind like it? The answer is yes, because wind emits a foul smell. "And flowing sores in the private parts" Is this specific or shared?
The questioner : Specific.
The Shaykh : Specific. The private part is the female's private part. Flowing sores, and the apparent meaning of the author's words is that if there are wounds but they are not flowing, then it is not a defect. The correct view, without doubt, is that it is a defect, because the flowing sores are those that secrete a putrid substance, and the non-flowing ones do not secrete, but they are wounds that have blood, that have a substance, but it does not flow. The correct view is that this is a defect without doubt, because the soul is repelled by what? By having intercourse with her while there are sores in her private part. "And piles and fistulas" Is this shared or specific?
The questioner : Shared.
The Shaykh : Shared. The commentator says that piles and fistulas are two diseases in the anus, and they are well known. They are vessels that open and blood flows from the person continuously. This is undoubtedly a defect because it repels each one from the other. And castration, is it specific or general?
The questioner : Specific.
The Shaykh : Yes, specific to whom?
The questioner : To the man.
The Shaykh : To the man, "and the removal of the testicles".
The questioner : It is general.
Another questioner: Shared.
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This is specific.
The questioner : It is general.
The Shaykh : Specific, is it?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes. "Sal" means the removal of the testicles. It is not the well-known "sal." The well-known "sal" is undoubtedly a disease that occurs in men and women, but even so, it is not a defect.
The questioner : ... with the kasrah.
The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : ... with the kasrah on the sin.
The Shaykh : No, no, the correct is with the fathah, "sal," meaning the removal of the testicles. Now, why is the removal of the testicles and their castration a defect?
The questioner : No ... .
The Shaykh : Because it invalidates desire, either completely or it weakens it greatly. And it also prevents offspring, because offspring is only produced by semen, and the testicles are the only ones that cook the semen. If the testicles are lost, there is no offspring, nor even complete intercourse. What is the difference between castration and "sal"? Castration is when the testicles are cut off with the skin, and "sal" is when the skin is opened and the testicles are removed, and the skin remains as it is. This is the difference. And "wijaj," "wijaj" means crushing, meaning the testicles are crushed. This is also a defect.
The questioner : Specific.
The Shaykh : Specific. The private part is the female's private part. Flowing sores, and the apparent meaning of the author's words is that if there are wounds but they are not flowing, then it is not a defect. The correct view, without doubt, is that it is a defect, because the flowing sores are those that secrete a putrid substance, and the non-flowing ones do not secrete, but they are wounds that have blood, that have a substance, but it does not flow. The correct view is that this is a defect without doubt, because the soul is repelled by what? By having intercourse with her while there are sores in her private part. "And piles and fistulas" Is this shared or specific?
The questioner : Shared.
The Shaykh : Shared. The commentator says that piles and fistulas are two diseases in the anus, and they are well known. They are vessels that open and blood flows from the person continuously. This is undoubtedly a defect because it repels each one from the other. And castration, is it specific or general?
The questioner : Specific.
The Shaykh : Yes, specific to whom?
The questioner : To the man.
The Shaykh : To the man, "and the removal of the testicles".
The questioner : It is general.
Another questioner: Shared.
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This is specific.
The questioner : It is general.
The Shaykh : Specific, is it?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes. "Sal" means the removal of the testicles. It is not the well-known "sal." The well-known "sal" is undoubtedly a disease that occurs in men and women, but even so, it is not a defect.
The questioner : ... with the kasrah.
The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : ... with the kasrah on the sin.
The Shaykh : No, no, the correct is with the fathah, "sal," meaning the removal of the testicles. Now, why is the removal of the testicles and their castration a defect?
The questioner : No ... .
The Shaykh : Because it invalidates desire, either completely or it weakens it greatly. And it also prevents offspring, because offspring is only produced by semen, and the testicles are the only ones that cook the semen. If the testicles are lost, there is no offspring, nor even complete intercourse. What is the difference between castration and "sal"? Castration is when the testicles are cut off with the skin, and "sal" is when the skin is opened and the testicles are removed, and the skin remains as it is. This is the difference. And "wijaj," "wijaj" means crushing, meaning the testicles are crushed. This is also a defect.