If a woman is raped and loses her virginity, and then after a period of time a suitor proposes to her, is she considered to have the ruling of a previously married woman?
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The questioner : If a woman is raped and has intercourse with her, and her virginity is lost, and then after a period of time a suitor proposes to her, is she considered to have the ruling of a previously married woman, or is this fornication? This is not a marriage, is it?
The Shaykh : And what do you say? If a woman is a previously married woman through fornication, not through marriage, is she considered a previously married woman? Or is her ruling the ruling of a virgin?
The student: A previously married woman.
The Shaykh : She is considered a previously married woman because when intercourse occurs with a woman, her modesty is removed. She is shy and modest only as long as she is a virgin. However, if intercourse occurs, even through fornication, yes.
Come on, Salama?
The Shaykh : And what do you say? If a woman is a previously married woman through fornication, not through marriage, is she considered a previously married woman? Or is her ruling the ruling of a virgin?
The student: A previously married woman.
The Shaykh : She is considered a previously married woman because when intercourse occurs with a woman, her modesty is removed. She is shy and modest only as long as she is a virgin. However, if intercourse occurs, even through fornication, yes.
Come on, Salama?