Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "Thus is a feminine noun with a ha' absolutely *** and the condition for preventing the 'Aar..."
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The Shaykh :"Thus is a feminine noun" means: "Thus" is a feminine proper noun. "Thus" is a feminine attribute for a described noun that is omitted. What is the implied meaning? Huh?
The student: "Thus" is a proper noun.
The Shaykh : "Thus" is a feminine proper noun. And the author's saying "with a ha'" is strange to your ears, because it is known that a feminine noun is made feminine with a ta'. However, some scholars refer to the singular ta' as a ha', but the majority refer to it as what?
The student: As a ta'.
The Shaykh : As a ta'. If Ibn Malik had said: "Thus is a feminine noun with a ta' absolutely," the verse would not be broken. But he seems to hold the second opinion that the ta' which is not for the plural is called a ha'. Okay:
"Thus is a feminine noun with a ha' absolutely"
"Absolutely" means the word "absolute" applies to whatever it is, whether it is for a male or a female, and whether it is three letters or fewer or more. Yes, but the minimum can be less, and the ha' can be the third letter. Yes. So his saying: "with a ha' absolutely" means that in whatever form it is, it is prevented from inflection due to being a proper noun and being feminine. Due to being a proper noun and being feminine. What is the femininity here? The ta'. But if it is for a male, its femininity is verbal. And if it is for a female, its femininity is verbal and semantic. Verbal and semantic. An example of this: we know that among the Companions there is one named Qatadah. Qatadah, so this is feminine with a ta'. And one named Talhah.
The student: Samurah.
The Shaykh : And one named Samurah, and one named Usamah, and one named Hamzah, is that not so?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : All these names are prevented from inflection due to being proper nouns and being feminine. And what type of femininity is it?
The student: Verbal.
The Shaykh : Verbal. The femininity is verbal. If someone said: "And from Talhah (may Allah be pleased with him)?"
The student: He would be mistaken.
The Shaykh : He would be mistaken. Okay, but the problem is that I might say: "I cut Talhah and lit the fire under the pot."
The student: It is not a proper noun.
The Shaykh : Correct.
The student: It is not a proper noun.
The Shaykh : Because it is not?
The student: A proper noun.
The Shaykh : It is not a proper noun. Yes, it is not a proper noun. Okay, we say: "I passed by a woman standing." All of "woman" and "standing" are inflected, and they both have a ta'?
The student: They do not have a proper noun.
The Shaykh : They do not have a proper noun. So "Thus is a feminine noun" we must say that there is something omitted, and it is?
The student: Knowledge.
The Shaykh : A proper noun. "Thus is a proper noun feminine with a ha' absolutely," in order to exclude the attribute and the simple noun. "Woman" is a simple noun. "Standing"?
The student: Description.
The Shaykh : Is this attribute prevented from inflection or not prevented?
The student: Not prevented. Okay, I named my daughter. A daughter came to me and I named her "Woman," huh?
The student: It is prevented.
The Shaykh : Is it prevented from inflection?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : Yes, yes. For this reason, the word Fatimah and A'ishah, if it is an attribute, it is?
The student: Inflected.
The Shaykh : Inflected. And if it is a proper noun?
The student: Not inflected.
The Shaykh : So it is not inflected. You say: "I passed by an old woman A'ishah, one hundred years old." Correct?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : It is inflected here, why?
The student: Because it is an attribute.
The Shaykh : Because it is an attribute. And you say: "I passed by a woman Fatimah, and her child?"
The student: Likewise.
The Shaykh : Likewise, it is inflected because it is not a proper noun. Yes, okay. So every proper noun ending with the ta' of femininity, this is a rule we take from the first half: every proper noun ending with the ta' of femininity is?
The student: It is prevented from declension.
The Shaykh : Prevented from inflection, whether this proper noun is for a male or a female, and whether it is three letters or more. Then he said:
"And the condition for preventing the 'Aar is that it rises *** above three"
The 'Aar from what?
The student: From the ta'.
The Shaykh : From the ta', meaning: the one devoid of it. Meaning, if it is a feminine proper noun without the ta', which is called semantic femininity. -Put your hands down- The proper noun that is feminine by semantic femininity is prevented from inflection if it is devoid of the ta', but with conditions.
The student: "Thus" is a proper noun.
The Shaykh : "Thus" is a feminine proper noun. And the author's saying "with a ha'" is strange to your ears, because it is known that a feminine noun is made feminine with a ta'. However, some scholars refer to the singular ta' as a ha', but the majority refer to it as what?
The student: As a ta'.
The Shaykh : As a ta'. If Ibn Malik had said: "Thus is a feminine noun with a ta' absolutely," the verse would not be broken. But he seems to hold the second opinion that the ta' which is not for the plural is called a ha'. Okay:
"Thus is a feminine noun with a ha' absolutely"
"Absolutely" means the word "absolute" applies to whatever it is, whether it is for a male or a female, and whether it is three letters or fewer or more. Yes, but the minimum can be less, and the ha' can be the third letter. Yes. So his saying: "with a ha' absolutely" means that in whatever form it is, it is prevented from inflection due to being a proper noun and being feminine. Due to being a proper noun and being feminine. What is the femininity here? The ta'. But if it is for a male, its femininity is verbal. And if it is for a female, its femininity is verbal and semantic. Verbal and semantic. An example of this: we know that among the Companions there is one named Qatadah. Qatadah, so this is feminine with a ta'. And one named Talhah.
The student: Samurah.
The Shaykh : And one named Samurah, and one named Usamah, and one named Hamzah, is that not so?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : All these names are prevented from inflection due to being proper nouns and being feminine. And what type of femininity is it?
The student: Verbal.
The Shaykh : Verbal. The femininity is verbal. If someone said: "And from Talhah (may Allah be pleased with him)?"
The student: He would be mistaken.
The Shaykh : He would be mistaken. Okay, but the problem is that I might say: "I cut Talhah and lit the fire under the pot."
The student: It is not a proper noun.
The Shaykh : Correct.
The student: It is not a proper noun.
The Shaykh : Because it is not?
The student: A proper noun.
The Shaykh : It is not a proper noun. Yes, it is not a proper noun. Okay, we say: "I passed by a woman standing." All of "woman" and "standing" are inflected, and they both have a ta'?
The student: They do not have a proper noun.
The Shaykh : They do not have a proper noun. So "Thus is a feminine noun" we must say that there is something omitted, and it is?
The student: Knowledge.
The Shaykh : A proper noun. "Thus is a proper noun feminine with a ha' absolutely," in order to exclude the attribute and the simple noun. "Woman" is a simple noun. "Standing"?
The student: Description.
The Shaykh : Is this attribute prevented from inflection or not prevented?
The student: Not prevented. Okay, I named my daughter. A daughter came to me and I named her "Woman," huh?
The student: It is prevented.
The Shaykh : Is it prevented from inflection?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : Yes, yes. For this reason, the word Fatimah and A'ishah, if it is an attribute, it is?
The student: Inflected.
The Shaykh : Inflected. And if it is a proper noun?
The student: Not inflected.
The Shaykh : So it is not inflected. You say: "I passed by an old woman A'ishah, one hundred years old." Correct?
The student: Yes.
The Shaykh : It is inflected here, why?
The student: Because it is an attribute.
The Shaykh : Because it is an attribute. And you say: "I passed by a woman Fatimah, and her child?"
The student: Likewise.
The Shaykh : Likewise, it is inflected because it is not a proper noun. Yes, okay. So every proper noun ending with the ta' of femininity, this is a rule we take from the first half: every proper noun ending with the ta' of femininity is?
The student: It is prevented from declension.
The Shaykh : Prevented from inflection, whether this proper noun is for a male or a female, and whether it is three letters or more. Then he said:
"And the condition for preventing the 'Aar is that it rises *** above three"
The 'Aar from what?
The student: From the ta'.
The Shaykh : From the ta', meaning: the one devoid of it. Meaning, if it is a feminine proper noun without the ta', which is called semantic femininity. -Put your hands down- The proper noun that is feminine by semantic femininity is prevented from inflection if it is devoid of the ta', but with conditions.