If a woman is married to a sterile man, is it permissible to transfer another man's semen to her via injection or tube, and what is the ruling if the situation is reversed?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : The second question asks: If a woman is married to a sterile man who does not father children, is it permissible to transfer another man's semen to her via injection or what is called a tube, and what is the ruling if the situation is...
The Shaykh : Repeat the question...?
The questioner : It asks: If a woman is married to a sterile man who does not father children, is it permissible to transfer another man's semen to her via injection or what is called a tube, and what is the ruling if the situation is reversed, such that the man is fertile but the woman herself is sterile? Is it permissible to preserve her husband's semen in an environment that exactly resembles the environment of the woman's womb until the fetus develops? This is what has happened, as it was performed in some hospitals around the world and the method succeeded. So what is the Islamic ruling in both cases?
The Shaykh : Yes, as for the first case, which is when the husband does not father children.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : If his wife takes semen from another husband and injects it into her womb for the purpose of childbirth, then this is a forbidden act and is not permissible. It has come in a hadith from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) And if intercourse with a woman during her waiting period is forbidden out of fear of mixing lineages, then this is even more so and more urgent. Therefore, it is not permissible for a woman under any circumstances to fertilize herself with semen other than her husband's semen.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : And if she does that, then the children are her children and not her husband's children, because they are not attributed to him and they are from other than his semen.
And as for the second case, which is when the woman is the one who does not bear children, and the husband injects his semen into something until it grows, and then it is injected into the woman's womb, then there is nothing wrong with that.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : If the procedure is successful and the doctors know this, because this does not amount to anything more than the man having ejaculated outside the vagina and then the vagina being fertilized with it, and the husband is her husband and the semen is her husband's semen, and there is no blame in that.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : The jurists have explicitly stated regarding such a case, yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
This questioner is from Kuwait, morning session.
The Shaykh : Repeat the question...?
The questioner : It asks: If a woman is married to a sterile man who does not father children, is it permissible to transfer another man's semen to her via injection or what is called a tube, and what is the ruling if the situation is reversed, such that the man is fertile but the woman herself is sterile? Is it permissible to preserve her husband's semen in an environment that exactly resembles the environment of the woman's womb until the fetus develops? This is what has happened, as it was performed in some hospitals around the world and the method succeeded. So what is the Islamic ruling in both cases?
The Shaykh : Yes, as for the first case, which is when the husband does not father children.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : If his wife takes semen from another husband and injects it into her womb for the purpose of childbirth, then this is a forbidden act and is not permissible. It has come in a hadith from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him)
It is not permissible for a man to water his semen into the crop of another.
لا يحل لرجل أن يُسقي ماؤه زرع غيرهThe questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : And if she does that, then the children are her children and not her husband's children, because they are not attributed to him and they are from other than his semen.
And as for the second case, which is when the woman is the one who does not bear children, and the husband injects his semen into something until it grows, and then it is injected into the woman's womb, then there is nothing wrong with that.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : If the procedure is successful and the doctors know this, because this does not amount to anything more than the man having ejaculated outside the vagina and then the vagina being fertilized with it, and the husband is her husband and the semen is her husband's semen, and there is no blame in that.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : The jurists have explicitly stated regarding such a case, yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
This questioner is from Kuwait, morning session.