Is the ignorant person excused for his ignorance or not?
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The Shaykh : The traditional question: Is the ignorant person excused for his ignorance or not?
My answer is: He may be excused, and he may not be excused. If the ignorant person lives in Islamic lands where knowledge and Islam prevail, especially regarding their beliefs, and more specifically regarding what relates to the oneness of Allah (tawhid), then this person is not excused for his ignorance. This is because he lives in an Islamic atmosphere where it is assumed that he should have known the correct belief from the good environment in which he lives. And without a doubt, a person can also imagine various scenarios.
It is an Islamic atmosphere, and praise be to Allah, the Saudi lands are still at the pinnacle in terms of the correctness of their belief. However, many Arab or non-Arab Muslims visit it to conduct their affairs, and sometimes for their acts of worship, such as Hajj or 'Umrah. One of them may have resided in these lands for a period of time, but due to the shortness of that period, he was unable to become acquainted with the belief of tawhid, for example. So he still carries in his thoughts some deviations from the correct tawhid. This person, despite having resided in an Islamic atmosphere where tawhid is correct, cannot be compared to one who was born in these lands, lived there, grew up, and learned. There is a great difference between the first and the second. Therefore, if we take this first example, namely an Islamic land with correct tawhid and belief, and compare it to another land that is not Islamic, such as Muslims who convert to Islam in lands of disbelief, like Europe, for example, or America or the like, then if these people do not understand some of the Islamic beliefs in their correct form, they are excused. This is because they do not find the atmosphere that gives them the meaning you referred to earlier when you said: "It has become known from the religion by necessity." This is only valid in the first society and in the detail I mentioned of one who grew up and was raised in it, and not for one who came to it as a newcomer for a short period of time.
Then we take an example, or rather other examples, between the first good school of thought and the other bad school of thought. We take, for example, Egyptian lands, where there are shaykhs and scholars of al-Azhar, and what do you know about the scholars of al-Azhar regarding al-Azhar al-Sharif and so on. And yet, you find shirk (associating partners with Allah) firmly established in al-Azhar and in the mosques, such as the Mosque of al-Husayn and others. The Egyptian lives there, poor soul, and does not hear the voice of tawhid at all. So this is not like the one who lived in the first society. Therefore, it is of great danger, while keeping in mind this detail and what I referred to as not being denied in terms of its great danger, to say that the ignorant person is not excused because he lives in an Islamic land. It is required of this Islamic land that its beliefs be well-known and, as I said, known from the religion by necessity. Let us assume, as we said earlier, a French or German man who converted to Islam. What drove him to Islam? Something of the greatness of Islam, so he said: "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah and that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah." But do you think that merely by declaring his Islam and returning from his people, he knew Islam in its details? Of course, the answer is no. He may be living with his wife, and his wife is still uncovered and displaying her adornment as she was before his conversion, and indeed as she was before her own conversion. They live together as siblings and brothers, and she appears before them as she appears before her husband. Is he excused or not? He is excused because he is new to Islam. And therefore, we find in some hadiths what can be taken as proof that the statement that the ignorant person is not excused is a statement that contradicts the practical Sunnah of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him). For example, we say today: if a Muslim in Islamic lands shouts loudly in his prayer, and continues in his prayer and does not repeat the prayer, is his prayer valid or invalid? His prayer is invalid. But the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) did not invalidate the prayer of one who shouted in his prayer because he excused him for his ignorance. And that is only because he was new to Islam. And on this basis, this sensitive issue is measured. So it is not said absolutely that the ignorant person is excused, nor is it said absolutely that the ignorant person is not excused. Rather, the issue involves many details, some of which I mentioned earlier.
My answer is: He may be excused, and he may not be excused. If the ignorant person lives in Islamic lands where knowledge and Islam prevail, especially regarding their beliefs, and more specifically regarding what relates to the oneness of Allah (tawhid), then this person is not excused for his ignorance. This is because he lives in an Islamic atmosphere where it is assumed that he should have known the correct belief from the good environment in which he lives. And without a doubt, a person can also imagine various scenarios.
It is an Islamic atmosphere, and praise be to Allah, the Saudi lands are still at the pinnacle in terms of the correctness of their belief. However, many Arab or non-Arab Muslims visit it to conduct their affairs, and sometimes for their acts of worship, such as Hajj or 'Umrah. One of them may have resided in these lands for a period of time, but due to the shortness of that period, he was unable to become acquainted with the belief of tawhid, for example. So he still carries in his thoughts some deviations from the correct tawhid. This person, despite having resided in an Islamic atmosphere where tawhid is correct, cannot be compared to one who was born in these lands, lived there, grew up, and learned. There is a great difference between the first and the second. Therefore, if we take this first example, namely an Islamic land with correct tawhid and belief, and compare it to another land that is not Islamic, such as Muslims who convert to Islam in lands of disbelief, like Europe, for example, or America or the like, then if these people do not understand some of the Islamic beliefs in their correct form, they are excused. This is because they do not find the atmosphere that gives them the meaning you referred to earlier when you said: "It has become known from the religion by necessity." This is only valid in the first society and in the detail I mentioned of one who grew up and was raised in it, and not for one who came to it as a newcomer for a short period of time.
Then we take an example, or rather other examples, between the first good school of thought and the other bad school of thought. We take, for example, Egyptian lands, where there are shaykhs and scholars of al-Azhar, and what do you know about the scholars of al-Azhar regarding al-Azhar al-Sharif and so on. And yet, you find shirk (associating partners with Allah) firmly established in al-Azhar and in the mosques, such as the Mosque of al-Husayn and others. The Egyptian lives there, poor soul, and does not hear the voice of tawhid at all. So this is not like the one who lived in the first society. Therefore, it is of great danger, while keeping in mind this detail and what I referred to as not being denied in terms of its great danger, to say that the ignorant person is not excused because he lives in an Islamic land. It is required of this Islamic land that its beliefs be well-known and, as I said, known from the religion by necessity. Let us assume, as we said earlier, a French or German man who converted to Islam. What drove him to Islam? Something of the greatness of Islam, so he said: "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah and that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah." But do you think that merely by declaring his Islam and returning from his people, he knew Islam in its details? Of course, the answer is no. He may be living with his wife, and his wife is still uncovered and displaying her adornment as she was before his conversion, and indeed as she was before her own conversion. They live together as siblings and brothers, and she appears before them as she appears before her husband. Is he excused or not? He is excused because he is new to Islam. And therefore, we find in some hadiths what can be taken as proof that the statement that the ignorant person is not excused is a statement that contradicts the practical Sunnah of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him). For example, we say today: if a Muslim in Islamic lands shouts loudly in his prayer, and continues in his prayer and does not repeat the prayer, is his prayer valid or invalid? His prayer is invalid. But the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) did not invalidate the prayer of one who shouted in his prayer because he excused him for his ignorance. And that is only because he was new to Islam. And on this basis, this sensitive issue is measured. So it is not said absolutely that the ignorant person is excused, nor is it said absolutely that the ignorant person is not excused. Rather, the issue involves many details, some of which I mentioned earlier.