What is the ruling on a person saying to his brother: "Put the hand of Allah in our hands" when they intend to go to the mosque?

The questioner : A person saying to his brother: "Put the hand of Allah in our hands," for example, when they intend to go to the mosque or such?

The Shaykh : This should not be said.

The questioner : Even if it is metaphorical?

The Shaykh : Regarding metaphor, the Messenger (peace be upon him) invalidated this figurative interpretation by saying: And in another hadith: If you want to say, for example, "The prince's servant came," do not say "The prince came," because you mislead people about what you intend. What prevents you from being explicit about your meaning and saying, "The prince's servant came," rather than "I said the prince came, but I meant such and such"? , and through this path, we used to respond in Syria to some of the Sufi shaykhs who believe in the ecstatic utterances of their shaykhs. You know what the Sufi ecstatic utterances are: they are phrases that, if you look at them with a quick, hasty glance, along with jurisprudence and knowledge, you see them as disbelief, but they interpret those words and call them ecstatic utterances, claiming they have beautiful and permissible meanings.
So we used to say to them, like this hadith: If the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) taught us and perfected our education, and taught us and perfected our instruction, and said: "When you speak to people, speak with clear, explicit words," you do not need to say, "By Allah, I meant such and such." And I have many discussions with many questioners on this point, because he asks a question that, if I stopped at its wording, I would answer with a response he does not want. He wants another meaning, but that other meaning is not derived from his question; he does not ask well. So I say, "My brother, I think you want such and such." He says, "Yes, by Allah." I say, "Then why did you not ask it that way?"
It is necessary, as the scholars of knowledge said: "Half of knowledge is asking a good question", that the question be clear so that the answer is also clear.
The point is that these Sufis transmit disbelief from some of their shaykhs. For example, they say about Ibn Arabi, who is buried there in Damascus, that he used to say: "Everything you see with your eye is Allah, and creation is the very essence of the Truth", which is explicit disbelief. In fact, they transmitted from him or from others, such as Ibn al-Farid, that he used to say:
"And the dog and the pig are nothing but our god *** And Allah is nothing but a monk in a church" :
Explicit disbelief. What do they say? "No, he did not mean this; he meant a meaning you do not understand."
Suppose he meant a meaning that only the select few among these Sufis understand, but where is the etiquette of the Messenger (peace be upon him)?
He heard a man say to him one day while he was delivering the sermon: He corrected him and made it clear to him that his saying "What Allah wills and what you will" involves associating the Messenger with Allah, even if only in wording. But knowing the good intention of this speaker, the Messenger (peace be upon him) said to him: If the Prophet denied this wording, would he not deny it if he heard someone saying:
"And Allah is nothing but a monk in a church" Would he not deny this?!
Without a doubt. Therefore, we must say something that does not require us to interpret it, just as you said earlier, "The hand of Allah in my hand." It is understood that it does not mean the hand is literal, as is the disagreement among the people of the Sunnah regarding the saying of Allah the Exalted: The people of the Sunnah say: This is an attribute of Allah that we believe in without asking how. As for those who deny the attributes and those who interpret them, they say that "the hand of Allah" sometimes means His power and sometimes means His grace. Here, this statement is interpreted, but why do we speak in a way that requires interpretation? .