Regarding prayer; if the one praying does not hear himself recite Surat al-Fatihah, for example, is his prayer invalid in that case?

The questioner : Regarding prayer—Shaykh—does it become a condition, or does the prayer become invalid, if a person does not vocalize the obligatory matters or the rulings where there is strength? Does this invalidate it, Shaykh? Because some scholars say that it invalidates the prayer?

The Shaykh : Specify what is the thing that invalidates or does not invalidate?

The questioner : If the one praying does not hear himself, for example, recite Surat al-Fatihah, his prayer might be invalid; is this correct?

The Shaykh : You say if he does not hear, or do you mean to say: if he does not move his tongue?

The questioner : He did not hear, Shaykh. A fortiori, if [he did not move his tongue].

The Shaykh : No? "Everyone laughs."

The questioner : I mean—Shaykh—if he did not make himself hear.

Another questioner : Both cases, Shaykh.

The questioner : I mean the first is broader than the second, Shaykh, so that one falls under the first.

The Shaykh : The first is broader than the second. What is in the first?

The questioner : That he hears himself, whereas the second is more specific, I mean.

The Shaykh : Which is more important, the first or the second?

The questioner : In your opinion, I mean?

The Shaykh : In your opinion or in mine? "Everyone laughs."

The questioner : The first, Shaykh.

The Shaykh : No, the second.

The questioner : Okay; the second, yes.

The Shaykh : Correct?

The questioner : Correct, yes.

The Shaykh: All right.

Another questioner : Okay; answer the question.

The Shaykh : May Allah guide you, you are sleepy just like my story!! "Everyone laughs."
Your expression that he hears himself may be correct sometimes and not always, but your second expression that he moves his tongue is a consistent rule. There may be a person whose hearing is heavy, or indeed he is deaf and does not hear his own voice with his ear, but he knows that he is moving what? His tongue. And moving the tongue is an indication that he has read. So we can say: So-and-so read and heard himself, and So-and-so read and did not hear himself. If the second one did not hear himself due to deafness in his ears, he is a reader. And if he did not hear himself and there is no deafness in his ears, but his hearing is very normal; then he has not read as it should be, because you know that the Arabic letters have points of articulation, and the point of articulation of one differs from another. Therefore, the precise expression is that he moves his tongue. And this is the expression that came in the Qur'an; He said: "Do not move your tongue with it to hasten it," right? ... Okay; allow us then to complete this word and that is all.
So I say: moving the tongue is an indication of reading, and reading is undoubtedly what is intended, because reading may be a mental visualization, and this is not the prescribed reading. So when we hear his saying—peace and blessings be upon him—: , a man placed the mushaf in front of him and started reading with his eyes, he did not move his tongue, this is not reading. Therefore, the statement of the scholars you referred to, their statement is true, but the expression is not precise when it is said that he hears himself; because something may occur that prevents him from hearing himself. He may be a man whose hearing, as we said, is normal, but there is noise and commotion around him, and he reads in a way that if he were alone he would have heard it; is this not known? So this expression is not the precise one, but rather that he moves his tongue, and this is the reading. And if he does not move his tongue as you read, then the statement of the scholars is the correct one.