Is it true that if a person does not hear himself in the prayer, such as Surat al-Fatihah, his prayer is invalid?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : Regarding the prayer, O Shaykh, is it a condition, or does the prayer become invalid if a person does not vocalize the obligatory matters or the rulings that involve speech? Does this invalidate it, O Shaykh? Because some scholars say that it invalidates the prayer?
The Shaykh : Specify what is the thing that invalidates or does not invalidate?
The questioner : If the one praying does not hear himself, for example, Surat al-Fatihah, is his prayer invalid? Is this correct?
The Shaykh : You say if he does not hear, or do you mean to say if he does not move his tongue?
The questioner : He did not hear, O Shaykh, and a fortiori if...
The Shaykh : No.
The questioner : I mean, O Shaykh, if he does not hear himself, I mean what is it called...
Another questioner: Both cases.
The questioner : I mean the first is broader than the second, O Shaykh. The first is broader than the second, so that one falls under the first.
The Shaykh : The first is broader than the second. What is the first?
The questioner : That he hears himself.
The Shaykh : Very well.
The questioner : And as for the second, this is more specific, I mean.
The Shaykh : Which is more important, the first or the second?
The questioner : In my opinion, I mean?
The Shaykh : In your opinion or in mine!
The questioner : The first, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : No, the second.
The questioner : Okay, the second, yes, correct.
The Shaykh : Correct?
The questioner : Correct.
The Shaykh : Okay, may Allah guide you, you are sleepy like my story.
Your expression that he makes himself heard may be correct sometimes and not always, but your second expression that he moves his tongue is a consistent rule. There may be a person whose hearing is heavy, or he is deaf and does not hear his voice with his ear, but he knows that he is moving his tongue. Moving the tongue is an indication that he recited. We can say so-and-so recited and made himself heard, and so-and-so recited and did not make himself heard. If the second one did not make himself heard because of deafness in his ears, he is a reciter. And if he did not make himself heard and is not deaf in his ears, but his hearing is very normal, then he did not recite as it should be, because you know that the Arabic letters have points of articulation, and one point of articulation differs from another. Therefore, the precise expression is that he moves his tongue, and this is the expression that came in the Qur'an, it said:[Al-Qiyamah 75:16].
The questioner : Do not move it with it.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The questioner :[Al-Qiyamah 75:16].
The Shaykh :[Al-Qiyamah 75:16] .
The student: Dinner is ready.
The questioner : Finish the answer and then dinner.
The Shaykh : Okay, allow us then.
The questioner : We will continue.
The Shaykh : We will continue this word, so I say that moving the tongue is an indication of recitation. Recitation, without doubt, is what is intended, because recitation may be a mental visualization, and this is not the prescribed recitation. So when we hear his saying (peace and blessings be upon him):, for example, a man placed the mushaf in front of him and started reading with his eyes without moving his tongue, this is not recitation. Therefore, the saying of the scholars you referred to, their saying is true, but the expression is not precise when it is said that he hears himself, because something may occur that prevents him from hearing himself. It may be a man whose hearing, as we said, is normal, but there is noise and commotion around him, and he is reading a recitation that if he were alone he would hear it, is this not known?
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : So this expression is not the precise expression, but rather that he moves his tongue, and this is the recitation. If he does not move his tongue, he has not recited, so the saying of the scholars is the correct one.
The questioner : Regarding the prayer, O Shaykh, is it a condition, or does the prayer become invalid if a person does not vocalize the obligatory matters or the rulings that involve speech? Does this invalidate it, O Shaykh? Because some scholars say that it invalidates the prayer?
The Shaykh : Specify what is the thing that invalidates or does not invalidate?
The questioner : If the one praying does not hear himself, for example, Surat al-Fatihah, is his prayer invalid? Is this correct?
The Shaykh : You say if he does not hear, or do you mean to say if he does not move his tongue?
The questioner : He did not hear, O Shaykh, and a fortiori if...
The Shaykh : No.
The questioner : I mean, O Shaykh, if he does not hear himself, I mean what is it called...
Another questioner: Both cases.
The questioner : I mean the first is broader than the second, O Shaykh. The first is broader than the second, so that one falls under the first.
The Shaykh : The first is broader than the second. What is the first?
The questioner : That he hears himself.
The Shaykh : Very well.
The questioner : And as for the second, this is more specific, I mean.
The Shaykh : Which is more important, the first or the second?
The questioner : In my opinion, I mean?
The Shaykh : In your opinion or in mine!
The questioner : The first, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : No, the second.
The questioner : Okay, the second, yes, correct.
The Shaykh : Correct?
The questioner : Correct.
The Shaykh : Okay, may Allah guide you, you are sleepy like my story.
Your expression that he makes himself heard may be correct sometimes and not always, but your second expression that he moves his tongue is a consistent rule. There may be a person whose hearing is heavy, or he is deaf and does not hear his voice with his ear, but he knows that he is moving his tongue. Moving the tongue is an indication that he recited. We can say so-and-so recited and made himself heard, and so-and-so recited and did not make himself heard. If the second one did not make himself heard because of deafness in his ears, he is a reciter. And if he did not make himself heard and is not deaf in his ears, but his hearing is very normal, then he did not recite as it should be, because you know that the Arabic letters have points of articulation, and one point of articulation differs from another. Therefore, the precise expression is that he moves his tongue, and this is the expression that came in the Qur'an, it said:
Move not your tongue with it, [O Muhammad], to hasten with recitation of the Qur'an.
لا تحرك به لسانك لتعجل بهThe questioner : Do not move it with it.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The questioner :
Move not your tongue with it
لا تحرك به لسانكThe Shaykh :
Move not your tongue with it
لا تحرك به لسانكThe student: Dinner is ready.
The questioner : Finish the answer and then dinner.
The Shaykh : Okay, allow us then.
The questioner : We will continue.
The Shaykh : We will continue this word, so I say that moving the tongue is an indication of recitation. Recitation, without doubt, is what is intended, because recitation may be a mental visualization, and this is not the prescribed recitation. So when we hear his saying (peace and blessings be upon him):
There is no prayer for the one who does not recite al-Fatihah of the Book
لا صلاة لمن لم يقرأ بفاتحة الكتابThe questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : So this expression is not the precise expression, but rather that he moves his tongue, and this is the recitation. If he does not move his tongue, he has not recited, so the saying of the scholars is the correct one.