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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is it true that 'Umar ibn al-Khattab forbade mut'ah?

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The questioner: ....

The Shaykh : It is true that 'Umar ibn al-Khattab forbade mut'ah, and it is true that the Messenger forbade mut'ah, and it is true that Allah forbade mut'ah. The prohibition of mut'ah by 'Umar does not contradict the prohibition of the Messenger, and the prohibition of the Messenger does not contradict the prohibition of Allah, because 'Umar does not forbid anything except in following the Messenger, and the Messenger does not forbid except what Allah has forbidden. So all of that is true, meaning 'Umar forbade mut'ah, but he was preceded in the prohibition by the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him). It may come in Sahih Muslim that he (peace and blessings be upon him) forbade it until the Day of Resurrection. However, the wording of the hadith is long: The Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him), during the Battle of the Conquest when he conquered Makkah, permitted the Companions to enjoy the women of Makkah there, specifically those who had no husbands. Then, before he left Makkah to return to al-Madinah, he said to them: "I had permitted you to take these women, so whoever among you has enjoyed any of them, let him divorce her, or something to that effect, for it is forbidden until the Day of Resurrection." This hadith is in Sahih Muslim. But it is not correct to say he forbade it before his death. Now, this "before" — we cannot determine to what time it refers. So there is great leniency in the expression that he forbade it before his death; he forbade it before that in time.
The one who is speaking, we do not give him permission to speak until he asks for permission. We give him permission. Please, go ahead.
Source www.al-albany.com

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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