What is the ruling on marrying a Christian woman?

The questioner : What is the ruling on marrying a Christian woman? Of course, they are from the People of the Book, but regarding them, they say in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, which means they are committing shirk (associating partners with Allah). So what is the ruling on marrying a Christian woman?

The Shaykh : Of course, this question is called in the language of jurists "obtaining the inevitable" because this is explicitly stated in the Noble Qur'an. Are you asking me about what is explicitly stated in the Noble Qur'an? And our Lord says Is it permissible or not permissible, when He explicitly states its permissibility? I do not think your question is clear; if you must, clarify your question for me.

The questioner : I mean, the Christians say in the name of the Father.

The Shaykh : I understand, my brother. Be patient. What he said He said in the Noble Qur'an Now, what is the meaning of your statement that they say the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit? If we did not know, our Lord informed us, saying Nevertheless, our Lord (Mighty and Majestic) permitted us to marry women from the People of the Book, even though they are mushrikat (women who associate partners with Allah), because they believe in the Trinity and they crucify, as you know. But the thing that truly must be explained and discussed and talked about is what many young people overlook. Those who go, or rather, those who are afflicted with going to the lands of the West, to the lands of disbelief, open sinfulness, and lewdness—Europe or America—and then they marry Christian women there under the claim that Allah has permitted it... I have not finished; I am saying here that there is a very serious negligence on the part of these young people regarding the description mentioned by Allah (Mighty and Majestic) in the previous verse. He did not say "women from the People of the Book," but He said What is the meaning of "chaste women" (al-muhsanāt)? It means the chaste, honorable women. Where are they today in the lands of the West? They do not exist based on this description. I could have told you, "No, it is not permissible," but this is not permissible because this comes from the Qur'an. The Qur'an says it is permissible, but it brought a very important phrase, so He said Today, the norm in Europe, America, and all the lands of disbelief is that you do not find a chaste woman there. Do you not find a chaste woman in this time? Before this time, about sixty or seventy years ago, zina (unlawful sexual intercourse) was widespread among the women of the People of the Book, because as the jurists say, "There is no sin greater than disbelief." But without a doubt, the women of the People of the Book in the era of the revelation of the verse are not the same as those in this era. Therefore, He mentioned "chaste women" because there were chaste women at that time. But this chastity began to decrease with the passage of time and was completely lost in this era, where materialism and animal lust have dominated men and women to a very strange degree that no sane person, and I do not say a Muslim, would have imagined. The degradation of animal lust reached a point where the British Parliament made a decision to permit sodomy. This was never in anyone's mind. I wanted to say that before this era, the Christians had some modesty, some preservation of honor, reputation, and chastity. But zina had begun to spread widely until the end of the Ottoman era. One of the Turkish officers who had arrived with the Turkish army in the lands of Romania, where you hear today some of its news, told me. The Turkish army arrived there as conquerors in Islamic history, repeatedly, and even today there are mosques built by the Turks. This officer told me, from his mouth to my ear, as they say, "We used to hear from the Austrians and Austrian women that the midwife who attends to a pregnant woman, if the newborn is a girl, immediately inserts her finger into her vagina to break her virginity. Why? So that when she reaches the age of maturity and her husband marries her, he finds her virginity already broken. This is the answer given, not because she was a servant and committed zina, but because that is the custom of the midwife." This was in the past. But now, since a decision has been made to permit sodomy, you find the girl in front of her father and mother mixing and consorting, and no one says to her, "What are you doing?" Therefore, if we observe this attribute in the Noble Verse , it is not permissible for the Muslim youth today to marry a woman from the People of the Book, first from this aspect, because there are no chaste women, and second, if he brings her to the lands of Islam, her nature and morals will not harmonize with the Islamic environment. It will be one of two things: either she is forced to leave the environment, or he is forced to accommodate her. Instead of her responding to him, he will end up responding to her. In that case, this marriage is not prescribed, because when Allah (Mighty and Majestic) permitted the Muslim man to marry a Christian woman and forbade the Muslim woman to marry a Christian man, that was due to His saying (Exalted is He) If the European woman today is the one who will dominate the husband and the upbringing of his children from her, then the purpose and wisdom for which Allah (Mighty and Majestic) permitted the Muslim to marry a chaste woman from the People of the Book at that time is lost. Let us see your question?

The questioner : Is the contract with a Christian woman in these days considered invalid, or is the marriage originally forbidden?

The Shaykh : No, no, I am talking about the marriage.

The questioner : I mean, if he contracts with her and marries her?

The Shaykh : Of course, because she should be chaste. Does she meet the condition?

The questioner : The condition is not met.

The Shaykh : Then it is not permissible.