Pronouncing divorce merely to inform does not take effect
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There is a man who divorced his wife once, and after a period of time, he took her back. Then he was asked about this woman: is she under your protection or not?So he said: He said, "I divorced her." Does this count as a second divorce, or does it not take effect because it was based on the intention of his previous divorce?
First, your saying: He took her back. Did he take her back before the completion of the waiting period or after it?The questioner: During the waiting period.
The Shaykh: Okay, so she returned to being his wife, and then he was asked afterwards?The questioner: He was asked: is she under your protection or such?So he said: He said, "I divorced her," with the intention of his previous divorce.
The Shaykh: So, the divorce does not count against him.
First, your saying: He took her back. Did he take her back before the completion of the waiting period or after it?The questioner: During the waiting period.
The Shaykh: Okay, so she returned to being his wife, and then he was asked afterwards?The questioner: He was asked: is she under your protection or such?So he said: He said, "I divorced her," with the intention of his previous divorce.
The Shaykh: So, the divorce does not count against him.