You said in your explanation of the Tahawiyyah, when you spoke about jihad: “Jihad is of two types. The first is an individual obligation (fard 'ayn).”

The Shaykh : This question reminds me of what one of the contemporary writers said, that one of the most difficult things is to speak about self-evident matters. Our statement there is the statement of all Muslim scholars: if some disbelievers occupy the lands of the Muslims, it is obligatory for all Muslims to mobilize, individually and collectively, to expel this controlling disbeliever from those Islamic lands. If they do not do so, they are undoubtedly sinful because they have neglected one of the obligations. Now, the question is: what is the meaning of this statement? I think the questioner is asking about something other than what is understood from his question, and therefore I hope for clarification of the question. Sin is inevitable from neglecting any obligation; this is a known matter among all scholars. If the obligation to expel the disbelievers from some of the Islamic lands they have occupied is neglected, then those who did not strive to expel that disbeliever have committed sin. So, what exactly is the question?

The questioner : He said: “You said, O honorable Shaykh, in the Summary of the Tahawiyyah, when you spoke about jihad: ‘Jihad is of two types. The first is an individual obligation (fard 'ayn), which is repelling the enemy who attacks some of the lands of the Muslims, such as the Jews who occupied Palestine. Therefore, all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it.’ What do you mean when you say that all Muslims are sinful?”

The Shaykh : I say that this is a clear question, but the question is what defines the point. Is he asking what “sinful” means? Everyone understands the meaning of “sinful.” Is he asking what the individual obligation (fard 'ayn) of jihad is, or what the collective obligation (fard kifayah) is? What exactly is the question? Otherwise, repeating the question is of no benefit. In any case, if the student is present, let him clarify his question. If he is not present, we look to the left and move on to the next question. Or, in other words, do you understand what is intended by the question, or does anyone else?
Another questioner: Allah knows best, O Shaykh. It seems he means that all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it.

The Shaykh : Very well.
Another questioner: I mean, does Allah know best, do all Muslims have to go to fight them, and if they do not fight them, does that mean they are all sinful?

The Shaykh : Good. This has some meaning. It means that sin has befallen them unless they prepare to expel these disbelievers from the lands of the Muslims. This means that it is obligatory for them to take the initiative in adopting the means that enable them to fulfill this obligation. If they do not do so, they are sinful. Our Lord (Mighty and Majestic) commands us to prepare to fight the disbelievers to the end of the verse. In this preparation, it is possible to expel the Jews. As long as the Muslims are content with the presence of these disbelievers, they are undoubtedly sinful. We use the Jews as an example because they are the closest example that comes to the minds of Muslims in this time. But we all know that there are Islamic lands that have been occupied by the Soviets and others for fifty years. What did the Muslims do to fulfill this obligation? They did nothing. Undoubtedly, they are sinful. These lands remained in the hands of the disbelievers, and then the disbelievers expanded their occupation to other Islamic lands, such as Palestine. And the matter did not stop there; the last thing that happened was that they occupied Afghanistan. So, the intention of this is to alert all Muslims that they are falling short and are sinful in that they allow the disbelievers to occupy their lands, one after another. This is clear, meaning with this explanation.