You said in some of your words that all Muslims are sinful until they expel the Jews from Palestine; what does that mean?
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The questioner : ... Palestine, so all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it; so what does your statement mean that all Muslims are sinful, and may Allah reward you with good?
The Shaykh : This question reminds me of the saying of one of the contemporary writers that one of the most difficult things is to speak about self-evident matters. So our statement: there is a statement by all the scholars of the Muslims that if some disbelievers occupy the lands of the Muslims, it is obligatory for the Muslims to mobilize, all together and in scattered groups, to expel this dominating disbeliever from those Islamic lands. If they do not do so, they are sinful without a doubt, because they have left an obligatory duty among the duties.
Now the question: what is the meaning of this statement?
I think the questioner is asking about something other than what is understood from his question; therefore, I hope for clarification of the question. Sin is a necessary consequence of leaving any obligatory duty, this is a known matter among all scholars. So if the obligatory duty of expelling the disbelievers from some of the Islamic lands they have occupied is left; if this duty is neglected, then these people who did not strive to expel that disbeliever have sinned. So the question is: what exactly is it?
The questioner : He says: You said - O honorable Shaykh - in "Mukhtasar al-Tahawiyyah" when you spoke about jihad: "And jihad is of two types; the first: an individual obligation, which is repelling the attacking enemy from some of the lands of the Muslims, like the Jews who occupied Palestine, so all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it"; so what does your statement mean that all Muslims are sinful only?
The Shaykh : I do not say to this question, the question is clear, but the question does not specify the point. Is he asking: what does "sinful" mean? Everyone understands what "sinful" means. Is he asking: what is the individual jihad or what is the collective jihad? What is the question exactly? Or is there no benefit in repeating the question!
And peace be upon you.
The questioner : Allah knows best.
The Shaykh : In any case, if the questioner is present.
The questioner : It is not present.
The Shaykh : Let him clarify his question, and if he is not present, a look to the left, and move on to the next question after it, or in other words: do you understand what he intends from the question or any other person?
Another questioner : And Allah knows best - Shaykh - it seems he intends that all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it; meaning, do - and Allah knows best - the Muslims now all go to fight them? And if they do not fight them; does that mean they are all sinful?
The Shaykh : Good, this has some substance; it means that the sin has befallen them unless they prepare to expel these disbelievers from the lands of the Muslims, and this means that it is obligatory for them to hasten to take the means that enable them to perform this duty. If they do not do so, they are sinful. So our Lord - Mighty and Majestic - commands us to prepare to fight the disbelievers,[Al-Anfal 8:60] to the end of the verse, and with this preparation, the Jews can be expelled. As long as the Muslims are content with the presence of these disbelievers, they are sinful without a doubt. And we gave the example of the Jews because it is the closest example that comes to the minds of Muslims in this time. But we all know that there are Islamic lands that were occupied by the Soviets and others since fifty years; so what did the Muslims do in the way of performing this duty? They did nothing; so without a doubt they are sinful. These lands remained in the hands of the disbelievers, then the disbelievers expanded in making lawful other Islamic lands like Palestine for example, and the matter did not stop there, for the last thing that happened was that they occupied Afghanistan.
So the intended meaning of this is to alert all Muslims that they are falling short and are sinful where they leave the disbelievers to occupy their lands, one city after another. This is clear, meaning with this explanation.
The Shaykh : This question reminds me of the saying of one of the contemporary writers that one of the most difficult things is to speak about self-evident matters. So our statement: there is a statement by all the scholars of the Muslims that if some disbelievers occupy the lands of the Muslims, it is obligatory for the Muslims to mobilize, all together and in scattered groups, to expel this dominating disbeliever from those Islamic lands. If they do not do so, they are sinful without a doubt, because they have left an obligatory duty among the duties.
Now the question: what is the meaning of this statement?
I think the questioner is asking about something other than what is understood from his question; therefore, I hope for clarification of the question. Sin is a necessary consequence of leaving any obligatory duty, this is a known matter among all scholars. So if the obligatory duty of expelling the disbelievers from some of the Islamic lands they have occupied is left; if this duty is neglected, then these people who did not strive to expel that disbeliever have sinned. So the question is: what exactly is it?
The questioner : He says: You said - O honorable Shaykh - in "Mukhtasar al-Tahawiyyah" when you spoke about jihad: "And jihad is of two types; the first: an individual obligation, which is repelling the attacking enemy from some of the lands of the Muslims, like the Jews who occupied Palestine, so all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it"; so what does your statement mean that all Muslims are sinful only?
The Shaykh : I do not say to this question, the question is clear, but the question does not specify the point. Is he asking: what does "sinful" mean? Everyone understands what "sinful" means. Is he asking: what is the individual jihad or what is the collective jihad? What is the question exactly? Or is there no benefit in repeating the question!
And peace be upon you.
The questioner : Allah knows best.
The Shaykh : In any case, if the questioner is present.
The questioner : It is not present.
The Shaykh : Let him clarify his question, and if he is not present, a look to the left, and move on to the next question after it, or in other words: do you understand what he intends from the question or any other person?
Another questioner : And Allah knows best - Shaykh - it seems he intends that all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it; meaning, do - and Allah knows best - the Muslims now all go to fight them? And if they do not fight them; does that mean they are all sinful?
The Shaykh : Good, this has some substance; it means that the sin has befallen them unless they prepare to expel these disbelievers from the lands of the Muslims, and this means that it is obligatory for them to hasten to take the means that enable them to perform this duty. If they do not do so, they are sinful. So our Lord - Mighty and Majestic - commands us to prepare to fight the disbelievers,
And prepare against them whatever you are able of power
وَأَعِدُّوا لَهُمْ مَا اسْتَطَعْتُمْ مِنْ قُوَّةٍSo the intended meaning of this is to alert all Muslims that they are falling short and are sinful where they leave the disbelievers to occupy their lands, one city after another. This is clear, meaning with this explanation.
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.