You said in "Mukhtasar al-Tahawiyyah" when you spoke about jihad: "And jihad is of two types, the first is an individual obligation

The Shaykh : This question reminds me of the saying of one of the contemporary writers that one of the most difficult things is to speak about self-evident matters. Our statement there is the statement of all Muslim scholars: that if some disbelievers occupy the lands of the Muslims, it is obligatory for the Muslims to set out, all together and in scattered groups, to expel this occupying disbeliever from those Islamic lands. If they do not do so, they are sinful without a doubt, because they have left one of the obligatory duties. Now, the question is: what is the meaning of this statement?
I think thatThe questioner : he is asking about something other than what is understood from his question; and therefore I hope for clarification of the question. Sin is inevitable from leaving any obligatory duty, this is a known matter among all scholars. So if the obligatory duty of expelling the disbelievers from some of the Islamic lands they have occupied is neglected, if this duty is failed, then those who did not strive to expel that disbeliever have sinned. So what exactly is the question?

The questioner : He says: You said - O honorableThe Shaykh- in "Mukhtasar al-Tahawiyyah" when you spoke about jihad: "And jihad is of two types, the first is an individual obligation; and it is repelling the attacking enemy from some of the lands of the Muslims, like the Jews who occupied Palestine, so all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it"; so what is the meaning of your statement that all Muslims are sinful?
Please proceed.

The Shaykh : I have no answer to this question. The question is clear, but the question does not specify the point. Is he asking what is the meaning of "sinful"? Everyone understands the meaning of "sinful." Is he asking what is the individual jihad or what is the collective obligation? What exactly is the question? Otherwise, repeating the question has no benefit? = -- And upon you be peace -- = In any case, ifThe questioner : he is present, he clarifies his question, and if he is not present, look to the left, and move on to the next question after it, or in other words: do you understand what he intends with the question, or does anyone else?

Another questioner : Allah knows best, Shaykh, it seems he intends that all Muslims are sinful until they expel them from it.

The Shaykh: All right.

Another questioner : Meaning, does he, Allah knows best, intend that the Muslims now all go to fight them, and if they do not fight them, does that mean they are all sinful?

The Shaykh : Good; this has some merit. It means that the sin has befallen them unless they prepare to expel these disbelievers from the lands of the Muslims. And this means that it is obligatory for them to hasten to take the means that enable them to perform this obligatory duty. If they do not do so, they are sinful. Our Lord - Mighty and Majestic - commands us to prepare to fight the disbelievers; to the end of the verse. And with this preparation, it is possible to expel the Jews. As long as the Muslims are content with the presence of these disbelievers, they are sinful without a doubt. We gave the example of the Jews because it is the closest example that comes to the minds of Muslims in this time. But we all know that there are Islamic lands that have been occupied by the Soviets and others for fifty years; so what did the Muslims do in the way of performing this obligatory duty? They did nothing!! Without a doubt, they are sinful. These lands remained in the hands of the disbelievers, then the disbelievers expanded their occupation of other Islamic lands, like Palestine for example, and the matter did not stop there, for the last thing that happened was that they occupied Afghanistan; so the intention of this is to alert all Muslims that they are falling short and are sinful where they leave the disbelievers occupying their lands, one after another. This is clear, meaning with this explanation.