Is it permissible for a man to buy a commodity and sell it to another person whom he knows will buy it from him, without a prior agreement?
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The questioner : A questioner says: Is it permissible for me to buy a commodity and sell it to a person whom I have known, and even am certain, before I buy the commodity, that he will buy it from me, given that there was no promise or prior agreement, but rather, because of my knowledge of the person, I am certain that he will buy it from me?
The Shaykh : Yes, there is nothing wrong with it if a person knows or is convinced that so-and-so is seeking and looking for a specific commodity, and then a person goes and buys it and sells it to him for a deferred price higher than what he paid for it. This is because the man did not agree with the buyer to sell the commodity before he bought it; rather, he saw the desire of people, or the desire of this person, for this commodity, so he bought it and then sold it to him. However, this must be qualified by the condition that it does not involve deception. Some people deceive their brothers; they know that a road—street—will pass through a piece of land, so they go to its owner and buy it from him in order for it to be valued highly, without informing him that it has been decided that the street will pass through it and that the government will compensate for it. This is fraud, and it is not permissible for him. He must say, "I heard that the government will open a road on your land, and naturally, your land will be valued." In that case, if he wishes, he sells, and if he wishes, he waits. But if you deceive him, knowing that the road must pass through this land and that a high price will be paid for this road, and you deceive the landowner and buy it from him without informing him, then this is fraud.
Yes.
The Shaykh : Yes, there is nothing wrong with it if a person knows or is convinced that so-and-so is seeking and looking for a specific commodity, and then a person goes and buys it and sells it to him for a deferred price higher than what he paid for it. This is because the man did not agree with the buyer to sell the commodity before he bought it; rather, he saw the desire of people, or the desire of this person, for this commodity, so he bought it and then sold it to him. However, this must be qualified by the condition that it does not involve deception. Some people deceive their brothers; they know that a road—street—will pass through a piece of land, so they go to its owner and buy it from him in order for it to be valued highly, without informing him that it has been decided that the street will pass through it and that the government will compensate for it. This is fraud, and it is not permissible for him. He must say, "I heard that the government will open a road on your land, and naturally, your land will be valued." In that case, if he wishes, he sells, and if he wishes, he waits. But if you deceive him, knowing that the road must pass through this land and that a high price will be paid for this road, and you deceive the landowner and buy it from him without informing him, then this is fraud.
Yes.