What is the ruling on a man who divorced his wife three times under coercion, given that his marriage to a specific girl was not with the consent of his relatives, so they imprisoned him, beat him, and forced him to divorce her?
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The questioner : The questioner, a resident of Riyadh named Muhammad, asks: What is the ruling on a man who divorced his wife three times under coercion, given that his marriage to a specific girl was not with the consent of his relatives, so they imprisoned him, beat him, and forced him to divorce her? However, he did not intend to divorce her, and therefore he mentioned a name other than hers. He also did not inform her of the divorce and continued to provide her with financial maintenance for more than a year. What is the ruling in this case? May Allah reward you.
The Shaykh : The ruling is that there is no divorce upon him, because this man did not intend to divorce her and he named someone else, so there is no divorce upon him. However, I say to those who forced him to divorce her that they have transgressed against him and against the wife, and it is not permissible for them to force him to divorce her because they do not approve of his marriage to her, whether because she is not from the tribe, or because she is a foreigner, or something similar. This is forbidden; it is aggression and injustice against the man and his wife. So they should fear Allah the Exalted and know that there is no superiority of an Arab over a non-Arab except by taqwa (mindfulness of Allah). As long as this woman has no defect in her religion or her character, it is not permissible for them to force him to divorce her. Yes, if the woman had a defect in her religion, it might be said that they have the right to order him to divorce her, and in that case he would obey them. But if there is no defect in her character or her religion, he is not obligated to obey them in divorcing his wife, even if the one who ordered him was his father; he is not obligated to obey him.
Imam Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about a man whose father ordered him to divorce his wife. Imam Ahmad said to the man, "Do not divorce her." The man said, "Did not the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) order Abdullah ibn Umar to divorce his wife when his father Umar ordered him to?" Imam Ahmad said, "Is your father Umar?" Meaning that Umar only ordered his son to divorce his wife for a legal reason, whereas where is the legal reason for your father? So the conclusion is that it is not obligatory for a son to divorce his wife if his father orders him to do so, even if it is assumed that the father boycotted him and became angry with him; that does not harm him. However, if they mentioned something that defects her in her religion or her character, then that is a different matter. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you. What is the ruling on a woman breastfeeding her child while fasting?
The Shaykh : There is nothing wrong with her breastfeeding her child while she is fasting. However, if she fears that her milk will decrease to a degree that harms the child because of the fasting, then she does not fast, even if it is in Ramadan. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you.
The Shaykh : The ruling is that there is no divorce upon him, because this man did not intend to divorce her and he named someone else, so there is no divorce upon him. However, I say to those who forced him to divorce her that they have transgressed against him and against the wife, and it is not permissible for them to force him to divorce her because they do not approve of his marriage to her, whether because she is not from the tribe, or because she is a foreigner, or something similar. This is forbidden; it is aggression and injustice against the man and his wife. So they should fear Allah the Exalted and know that there is no superiority of an Arab over a non-Arab except by taqwa (mindfulness of Allah). As long as this woman has no defect in her religion or her character, it is not permissible for them to force him to divorce her. Yes, if the woman had a defect in her religion, it might be said that they have the right to order him to divorce her, and in that case he would obey them. But if there is no defect in her character or her religion, he is not obligated to obey them in divorcing his wife, even if the one who ordered him was his father; he is not obligated to obey him.
Imam Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about a man whose father ordered him to divorce his wife. Imam Ahmad said to the man, "Do not divorce her." The man said, "Did not the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) order Abdullah ibn Umar to divorce his wife when his father Umar ordered him to?" Imam Ahmad said, "Is your father Umar?" Meaning that Umar only ordered his son to divorce his wife for a legal reason, whereas where is the legal reason for your father? So the conclusion is that it is not obligatory for a son to divorce his wife if his father orders him to do so, even if it is assumed that the father boycotted him and became angry with him; that does not harm him. However, if they mentioned something that defects her in her religion or her character, then that is a different matter. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you. What is the ruling on a woman breastfeeding her child while fasting?
The Shaykh : There is nothing wrong with her breastfeeding her child while she is fasting. However, if she fears that her milk will decrease to a degree that harms the child because of the fasting, then she does not fast, even if it is in Ramadan. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you.