A man appointed someone to sell him a property, so he placed this property with an office to sell it, then a person came to the agent asking for these lands. So if he sells them to him, does he take the commission alone?
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The questioner : A man appointed someone to sell him a property, so he placed this property with an office to sell it, then a person came to the agent asking for these lands. So if he sells them to him, does he take the commission alone? And does the owner of the office have a right to the commission, even though the owner of the office did not sell this property? I ask for your guidance?
The Shaykh : This issue returns to the custom of people. If both the agent and the owner of the office are satisfied with what the other says, then that is fine. But if satisfaction is not achieved, their case is referred to the Sharia court.
The Shaykh : This issue returns to the custom of people. If both the agent and the owner of the office are satisfied with what the other says, then that is fine. But if satisfaction is not achieved, their case is referred to the Sharia court.
