Is it permissible for a man to give his zakah to his indebted son?

The Shaykh : Another example: A man’s son was involved in an accident, not a fatal one. Death is something the mind can accept, but here an accident occurred, and the other party’s car was damaged and assessed at six thousand riyals. Do you understand the example? Do you understand? A man has a son, and the son was involved in an accident with another person’s car, and the car was assessed at six thousand riyals. Do you understand the example now? Good. The son has nothing; he does not have a single qirsh. Is it permissible for his father to pay the car owner six thousand from the zakah? I may disagree with you, but it is permissible. It is permissible to pay this debt to the car owner, because we ask now: Is the son currently among the indebted or not? The son has nothing, my brothers, and the accident happened to him involuntarily; he did not do it intentionally. Is he among the indebted or not? Are you sure? Yes. He is indebted. Good. Does the noble verse say “and for those in debt,” excluding the ancestors and descendants? Meaning, excluding the sons, grandfathers, and fathers. It does not exclude them. So, my son is indebted, and it is better for me to give him from my wealth as charity or zakah than for someone else to give him from the zakah. I am his father, and charity to a relative is both charity and maintaining family ties. Therefore, there is no obstacle. Good.