Until he said, p. 118: "And in that case, what Allah has described Himself with in the Qur'an, or much of what Allah has described Himself with, the prophets do not know its meaning, rather
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The Shaykh : Until he said, p. 118, he said: "And in that case, what Allah has described Himself with in the Qur'an, or much of what Allah has described Himself with, the prophets do not know its meaning, rather they say" the prophets "words whose meaning they do not understand". Glory be to Allah! In the opinion of these people, the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): Sunan ad-Darimi 2:295 If we asked the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) what is the meaning of the hadith? He would say: I do not know. If we asked the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) about His saying, He is Muwatta Malik 21:30 he would say: I do not know. Is this reasonable, people? It is not reasonable for any person to speak and say that its meaning is not understood; he is raving, and he is closer to madness than to reason.
Well, he says: "He said: And it is known that this is a defect in the Qur'an and the prophets, since Allah revealed the Qur'an and informed that He made it a guidance and a clarification for people, and commanded the Messenger to convey the clear message and to explain to people what was revealed to them, and commanded the contemplation of the Qur'an and its understanding. And despite this, the most noble of what is in it, which is what the Lord informed about His attributes, no one knows its meaning, so it is not understood and not contemplated, and the Messenger does not explain to people what was revealed to them, nor does he convey the clear message. And on this assumption" Look at the necessary consequence: "And on this assumption, every atheist and innovator would say: The truth in the matter is what I have known by my opinion and my intellect, and there is nothing in the texts that contradicts that, because those texts are obscure and ambiguous, and no one knows their meaning".
Is it necessary or not? It is necessary. If the texts have no meaning, then they cannot contradict any falsehood, because what has no meaning... And I do not know if the Shaykh's speech is Arabic or foreign? It is comprehensible Arabic. Yes. Every atheist, heretic, and innovator comes with his heresy, innovation, and atheism and says: What I have said does not contradict the Qur'an, it does not contradict it. Why? He says: Because the Qur'an has no meaning. How can you confront me with something that has no meaning? And may Allah be pleased with him, this is a necessary consequence, it is inevitable, and we cannot refute an atheist if we do not know the meaning of the Qur'an. We cannot, because if we said, for example, your speech is false, it is "La ilaha illa Allah," what is the meaning of "La ilaha illa Allah"? It has no meaning. If we said, Allah does what He wills, and he says: No, absolutely, man is free, he does what he wishes, and it has no connection to the action of Allah. Why? We cannot say "Allah does what He wills" regarding the action of the servant, because he says to us: You say that the verses have no meaning, so we have not contradicted the verses. May Allah be pleased with the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him), where he opened such doors for the intelligent ones; otherwise, people would be in heedlessness. In fact, some people might say or think that if he remained silent, it would be safer for him, and he would say: I did not interpret "istawa" (rising above the Throne), nor "came," nor "laughs," and the like. We say: That is wrong. It is not safer. If you do not interpret them as Allah and His Messenger intended, you have perished. It is necessary to know the meaning, otherwise, as the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him) said, it would be possible on this assumption for every atheist and innovator to say: The truth in the matter is what I have known by my opinion and my intellect, and there is nothing in the texts that contradicts that, because those texts are obscure and ambiguous, and no one knows their meaning.
Our Lord descends to the lowest heaven and says: Who is calling upon Me?
ينزل ربنا إلى السماء الدنيا فيقول من يدعونيAllah laughs at two men. One of them kills the other, but each of them will enter the Garden
يضحك الله إلى رجلين يقتل أحدهما الآخر كلاهما يدخل الجنةWell, he says: "He said: And it is known that this is a defect in the Qur'an and the prophets, since Allah revealed the Qur'an and informed that He made it a guidance and a clarification for people, and commanded the Messenger to convey the clear message and to explain to people what was revealed to them, and commanded the contemplation of the Qur'an and its understanding. And despite this, the most noble of what is in it, which is what the Lord informed about His attributes, no one knows its meaning, so it is not understood and not contemplated, and the Messenger does not explain to people what was revealed to them, nor does he convey the clear message. And on this assumption" Look at the necessary consequence: "And on this assumption, every atheist and innovator would say: The truth in the matter is what I have known by my opinion and my intellect, and there is nothing in the texts that contradicts that, because those texts are obscure and ambiguous, and no one knows their meaning".
Is it necessary or not? It is necessary. If the texts have no meaning, then they cannot contradict any falsehood, because what has no meaning... And I do not know if the Shaykh's speech is Arabic or foreign? It is comprehensible Arabic. Yes. Every atheist, heretic, and innovator comes with his heresy, innovation, and atheism and says: What I have said does not contradict the Qur'an, it does not contradict it. Why? He says: Because the Qur'an has no meaning. How can you confront me with something that has no meaning? And may Allah be pleased with him, this is a necessary consequence, it is inevitable, and we cannot refute an atheist if we do not know the meaning of the Qur'an. We cannot, because if we said, for example, your speech is false, it is "La ilaha illa Allah," what is the meaning of "La ilaha illa Allah"? It has no meaning. If we said, Allah does what He wills, and he says: No, absolutely, man is free, he does what he wishes, and it has no connection to the action of Allah. Why? We cannot say "Allah does what He wills" regarding the action of the servant, because he says to us: You say that the verses have no meaning, so we have not contradicted the verses. May Allah be pleased with the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him), where he opened such doors for the intelligent ones; otherwise, people would be in heedlessness. In fact, some people might say or think that if he remained silent, it would be safer for him, and he would say: I did not interpret "istawa" (rising above the Throne), nor "came," nor "laughs," and the like. We say: That is wrong. It is not safer. If you do not interpret them as Allah and His Messenger intended, you have perished. It is necessary to know the meaning, otherwise, as the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him) said, it would be possible on this assumption for every atheist and innovator to say: The truth in the matter is what I have known by my opinion and my intellect, and there is nothing in the texts that contradicts that, because those texts are obscure and ambiguous, and no one knows their meaning.