Some scholars say that there is no zakah in trade goods fixed by a lunar year and a minimum threshold, because there is no evidence for that; rather, one gives what one is pleased to give.

The questioner : Praise be to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon the Messenger of Allah. May Allah reward our Shaykh with the best reward and benefit us with his knowledge. As for what follows: This questioner says: O honorable Shaykh, some scholars say that there is no zakah in trade goods fixed by a lunar year and a minimum threshold, because there is no evidence for that; rather, one must give what one is pleased to give?

The Shaykh : Yes, this is correct. Some scholars said there is no zakah in trade goods at all, and some said there is no minimum threshold or completion of a lunar year for them. But Allah the Exalted said: We say that most of people's wealth is in trade goods. How do we exclude trade goods from the generality of Allah's saying: And how do we exclude them from the generality of the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) to Mu'adh: Where is the evidence for excluding them? Most people, most traders, especially those in the cities as opposed to the desert, trade in what? Answer, everyone, in trade goods. If we said that zakah is not obligatory on trade goods, much wealth would be left without zakah. As for the requirement of reaching the minimum threshold, it is by clear and obvious analogy to the rest of the wealth. As for the claim that it is not obligatory, or that it has no minimum threshold, it is because the basis for the obligation of zakah on trade goods is that the owner intends the value, not the specific item?
The student: ... .

The Shaykh : The specific item or the value?
The student: ... .

The Shaykh : The value or the specific item? Yes, whether we mention one first or the other, both are established. Now, if the intention is the value, then the value is dirhams and dinars, and it is necessary for them to reach the minimum threshold. May Allah bless you. If a trader buys an item, does he take it for himself or for profit? If he makes a profit on it in five minutes, he sells it, right? So, some scholars wanted to use the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) as evidence that there is no zakah on trade goods. But, praise be to Allah, whenever a person uses a correct text as evidence for a weak opinion, that text becomes evidence against him. This is a rule you should know: "Whenever a person uses a text from the Qur'an or the Sunnah as evidence for a weak opinion, that text becomes evidence against him, not for him." The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: The word "his slave" indicates that this person who owns the slave has reserved him for himself and does not want to sell him. Similarly, "his horse" indicates that he has reserved this horse for himself. Does a trader, when he buys an item, want to reserve it for himself? No, he always wants to display it to people, displaying it in the shop for people to buy. So, the implication of his saying is that if the slave were not reserved for his owner, zakah would be obligatory on him. Now, reflect: this evidence, which was used to argue that zakah is not obligatory on trade goods, has become what? Evidence for it. Praise be to Allah. This is a rule mentioned by the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him) in his book "Refuting the Conflict Between Reason and Revelation", stating that whenever a person uses the Qur'an or the Sunnah as evidence for a weak opinion, his evidence becomes evidence against him. Yes. Bring the question.