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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on a pledge if it is from only one party?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : O Shaykh: Regarding a pledge, if it is from only one party.

The Shaykh : What?

The questioner : A pledge from only one party.

The Shaykh : What do you mean?

The questioner : For example: Zayd and 'Amr, they made a bet. Zayd said: If this thing happens, you get a thousand riyals, but 'Amr did not say this because he is the other party?

The Shaykh : How?
He said: If this thing happens, I will give you a thousand riyals?

The questioner : Yes, if this thing happens, I will pay you a thousand riyals. Zayd says this.

The Shaykh : But he is the one who committed to it, and did not bind anyone else?

The questioner : He himself.

The Shaykh : If this thing happens, I owe a thousand riyals.

The questioner : Yes, from one party only.

The Shaykh : To whom is the thousand riyals?

The questioner : To 'Amr.

The Shaykh : Why did 'Amr become entitled to it?
Did he do any work?
If he did not do any work and there is no consideration, it is consuming wealth unjustly. Yes, if he said to a person: If you do such-and-such, you get a thousand riyals, and this person tried to do it until he did it, then he is given it, because he exerted effort and worked.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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