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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on a male doctor delivering a pregnant woman?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : Answer simply: say yes or no.

The questioner : No.

The Shaykh : And what did he say?
until they give birth أَنْ يَضَعْنَ حَمْلَهُنَّ
[At-Talaq 65:4]
Well, the waiting period cannot end, whether due to the husband's life or death, except by the delivery of the pregnancy. So here we ask: If there are two in her womb and she delivers the first one, does the waiting period end?

The questioner : No.

The Shaykh : Where did you take this from? How do you say: No? Where from? Where is your evidence?

The questioner : "Their pregnancy" is general.

The Shaykh :
until they give birth أَنْ يَضَعْنَ حَمْلَهُنَّ
[At-Talaq 65:4]
"Their pregnancy" is a singular noun with a possessive suffix, so it implies generality, meaning everything that is in her womb. It is clear.

The questioner : But Shaykh, if for example this doctor is the only one available, is it permissible for him to perform the delivery?

The Shaykh : This is a second question, my brother. This is a second question. Do you allow us to answer it or not? He asks: Is it permissible for a doctor to deliver a woman? I say: If she is in dire necessity and no female is available, there is nothing wrong with it.

The questioner : Your Eminence, the Shaykh.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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