If one who memorizes is a proof against one who does not, why do we not say that the hadith prohibiting iq'a' is general and this hadith of Ibn 'Abbas is specific?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original

The questioner : If one who memorizes is a proof against one who does not, what is the answer to this principle?

The Shaykh : The prohibition of it may occur after the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) had done it.

Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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