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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the wisdom behind specifying the man with the curse and the woman with the anger in the noble verse?

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The student: The wife...

The Shaykh : She is closer to lying because she wants to ward off the disgrace from herself and her family, and therefore she was specifically assigned the anger. It is clear... So, what is taken from this is the wisdom in the difference between the husband and the wife regarding what each invokes upon himself: the woman with the anger and the husband with the curse. What is your opinion if he reversed it and said, "May the anger of Allah be upon the husband" and "May the curse of Allah be upon the wife"? Is it valid or not? It is not valid. The scholars even said that if the anger is replaced with "sakhth" (displeasure), or if she replaces the anger with "sakhth," or if the curse is replaced with expulsion and distance from the mercy of Allah, it is not valid, in order to follow the wording. And this is actually a matter of consideration, because expulsion and distance, and "sakhth," may have a difference between them and anger. However, expulsion and distance from the mercy of Allah is the meaning of it. Nevertheless, we say that it is not permissible to deviate from what came in the Qur'an: we should say to the husband, "May the curse of Allah be upon you," and to the wife, "May the anger of Allah be upon you."
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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