Is it required for the man to say "in what I accused you of regarding zina" and for her to say "in what he accused me of regarding zina," or is it not required?

Now, is it required to say "in what I accused you of regarding zina" and for her to say "in what he accused me of regarding zina," or is it not required? The apparent meaning of the Qur'an is that it is not required, and likewise the apparent meaning of the Sunnah. When the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) performed li'an between Hilal ibn Umayyah and his wife, he did not say to the truthful one, "in what I accused you of," nor did she say, "in what he accused me of." Therefore, the correct view is that this is not a condition. If it is said, "Is it not permissible for the truthful one to interpret (ta'wil) in another case?" The answer is yes, it is permissible, without a doubt. There is no doubt that it is permissible to interpret and say, "I am among the truthful ones" in another matter. But does this interpretation benefit him or not? It does not benefit him, because the interpretation of the wrongdoer does not benefit him. His oath is on what his partner confirms for him and on what the situation demands. Yes. However, if he mentions "in what I accused you of regarding zina" and she says "in what he accused me of regarding zina," that would be clearer and more explicit, but it is not obligatory.
The student: The one who is not the wrongdoer.

The Shaykh : The one who is not the wrongdoer. We mentioned that the wronged one is benefited by a single statement. As for the one who is neither wrongdoer nor wronged, there is scholarly disagreement (khilaf) among the scholars. The better course is that they do not resort to it, because it leads to their being accused if the matter turns out to be contrary to what they displayed and denied. And perhaps... his speech. And whatever he testified to, he said, "I interpreted it," like... And as for if he becomes the wronged one, this is a dire necessity (darurah) to interpret. Now.