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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Allah the Exalted said: << وإذا يتلى عليهم قالوا ءامنا به إنه الحق من ربنآ إنا كنا من قبله مسلمين >

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And when it is recited to them وإذا يتلى عليهم
The Qur'an
they say, "We have believed in it قالوا آمنا به
[Al-Qasas 28:53]
what Allah willed
When it is recited, they saidإذا يتلى قالوا
Ifإذا
—as we know— is the conditional clause and the answer to the condition connected directly to its verb, or not?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Is the answer to the condition connected directly to its verb, or not?
The student:
It is recited to them, they saidيتلى عليهم قالوا


The Shaykh : I am asking you this as a general rule: is the answer to the condition connected directly to its verb, meaning that whenever the verb of the condition is found, its answer is found? It does not mean verbal connection, but actual connection: if the condition is found, the conditioned is found. Yes. And of course, depending on the situation, it does not mean it must be immediate; it could even be in the future. Here it says:
And when it is recited to them, they say, "We have believed in it إذا يتلى عليهم قالوا آمنا به
[Al-Qasas 28:53]
When it is recitedإذا يتلى
It did not say:
When it was recitedإذا تُلِي
So this means that whenever any verse is recited to them, they say, "We believe in it." They did not believe in the Qur'an as a whole; they believed in the Qur'an in detail, because what does the present tense verb indicate? It indicates continuity. So whenever a verse was recited to them, they believed in it, and it increased them in faith.
When it is recited to themإذا يتلى عليهم
Does this mean it is read to them
They said, "We believe in it"قالوا آمنا به
with hesitation, reflection, and thought, or do they believe immediately?
The student: Immediately.

The Shaykh : Immediately, because we said that the answer to the condition follows the verb of the condition directly.
When it is recitedإذا يتلى
They said, "We believe in it"قالوا آمنا به
That is, in what was recited to them from the Qur'an, whether little or much. Then they clarified that this faith was based on conviction and on the basis that
It is the truth from our Lordإنه الحق من ربنا
Indeed, heإنه
that is, what was recited to them from the Qur'an. "The truth" means the established, actual, and true thing, whether as a report or a judgment. And their saying:
from our Lordمِن ربنا
They did not say "from Allah," because the Lord is the One who has absolute disposal; He disposes of His servants in terms of both legislation and decree. So it is as if they are saying that our Lord will not leave us without descending the Qur'an, and He has absolute judgment and disposal in both creation and legislation. And their saying:
from our Lordمن ربنا
This is an indication that they, may Allah be pleased with them, take pride in their affiliation to Allah.
from our Lordمِن ربنا
And His saying:
It is the truth from our Lordإنه الحق من ربنا
In terms of meaning, what is the status of this clause relative to what came before it?
The student: Explanatory.

The Shaykh : Explanatory, meaning we believed in it not because we were pleased with its beauty, clarity, and eloquence, but we believed in it because it is the truth from our Lord. So if someone asks: If it is explanatory, why is the hamza not opened?
that it is the truth from our Lordأنه الحق من ربنا
Because the explanatory clause is on the assumption of the lam (for), and when the lam is attached to
Indeedإن
, the hamza must be opened. So you say "li-anna" (because) and not "inna" (that). Allah the Exalted said:
And they who give what they give while their hearts are fearful because they will be returning to their Lord - وَالَّذِينَ يُؤْتُونَ مَا آتَوا وَقُلُوبُهُمْ وَجِلَةٌ أَنَّهُمْ إِلَى رَبِّهِمْ رَاجِعُونَ
[Al-Mu'minun: 60] and He did not say "to their Lord." So why was it not explanatory here? We said: The explanatory clause can be explanatory in terms of meaning only, meaning only the meaning is observed, or it can be explanatory where both the wording and the meaning are observed. If the wording is observed along with the meaning, the hamza is opened because it is on the assumption of the lam. If only the wording is observed, the hamza is broken. Here, what was observed?
The student: The meaning.

The Shaykh : Only the meaning was observed. Which is more appropriate, observing the meaning or observing the wording? We say: Every occasion has its own speech. The benefit of observing the meaning is that the clause is, in terms of wording, disconnected from what came before it, as if it is an independent declarative clause, as if it is disconnected from the wording, but the explanatory benefit comes from the context. As for the verbal explanatory clause, it is connected to what came before it. If you wish, read the words of Ibn Malik:
So break it at the beginning فاكسر في الابتداء
This is the difference between the explanatory clause intended for both wording and meaning, or the one intended for meaning only.
Indeed we were, [even] before it, Muslims [submitting to Allah]." إنا كنا من قبله مسلمين
[Al-Qasas 28:53]
From before what? From before the Qur'an.
Indeed, we were Muslims before itإنا كنا من قبله
That is, from before the Qur'an.
Muslimsمسلمين
The author said: "believing in One" If he had interpreted Islam by its apparent meaning, it would have been more appropriate, because Islam means submission and obedience, and its root is from the absence of opposition and fighting. For this reason, "silm" (peace) and "Islam" mean the absence of opposition and fighting. So the word
Muslims before itمن قبله مسلمين
means submissive and obedient to the truth. And their saying:
Indeed, we were Muslims before itإنا كنا من قبله مسلمين
The intended meaning is certainly not pride or admiration for the deed, because the context is one of praise. But the intended meaning is praising Allah for what they were in both states: in the previous state and in the second state. In the second state,
When it was recited to them, they said, "We believe in it"إذا يتلى عليهم قالوا آمنا به
and in the first state,
They were Muslims before itكانوا من قبله مسلمين
they were submissive and following the Messenger who came to them. Now, what is the grammatical analysis of
Muslimsمسلمين
? Is it the predicate of "kana" (was), or is
before itمِن قبله
the predicate?
The student: Muslims.

The Shaykh : Yes, "Muslims" is the predicate. And if the predicate comes first... the predicate is what achieves the benefit, whether it comes first or last.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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