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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Reading from the author's text with commentary and collation of manuscripts: "As for the lease or hire contract, the companions of the school equated it with a sale contract

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The reader: "As for the lease or hire contract, the companions of the school equated it with a sale contract, and what he reported about Ibn 'Unayn is not his opinion, and his admiration for Ibn 'Unayn's action was only because of Ibn 'Unayn's good intention and his righteous intent. It can be said: rather, the apparent report is that he permitted it, for his admiration for the action is evidence of its permissibility in his view, and his restriction of the answer to the action of a man implies that it is his position in one of the two views. The difference between the lease or hire contract and a sale contract is that the harm of assistance present in the lease or hire contract is counterbalanced by another public benefit, which is diverting the intimidation of demanding rent from the Muslim and imposing it upon the disbelievers. This became like their acknowledgment of the tax on protected non-Muslims, for although it is an acknowledgment by a disbeliever, it was permitted because of the public benefit it contained. Likewise, making a truce with the disbelievers is permitted in general. As for the sale contract, this public benefit"

The Shaykh : The issue of intimidating the Muslim with the rent is subject to consideration, because if the Muslim hires, he has already prepared himself to pay the rent, and there is no intimidation in that. Yes, if it were assumed that the disbelievers offered a large rent and the Muslim said, "I will not hire you out except for this," it is possible that there is intimidation in that. As for the lease or hire contract for a known, customary rent, there is no intimidation in it. May Allah be our helper. Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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