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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "Qabla is like Ghayra, Ba'da is like Hasab, Awwal *** and Dun and the directions also, and 'Ala."

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The Shaykh : The author said:
"Qabla is like Ghayra" "Qabla is like Ghayra" How is "Qabla is like Ghayra"? Do you have "Ghayru" or "Ghayri"?
The student: "Ghayru."

The Shaykh : "Ghayru" is on the basis of *hikayah* (narrative). It is permissible to say "Qabla is like Ghayri" and it is permissible to say "Qabla is like Ghayru" on the basis of *hikayah*. However, if we say "Qabla is like Ghayri," that is on the basis of the word form. This means that the word "Qabla," if the thing to which it is added is deleted and its meaning is intended, it is built on *dammah*. Allah the Exalted said:
To Allah belongs the command before and after لِلَّهِ الأَمْرُ مِنْ قَبْلُ وَمِنْ بَعْدُ
[Ar-Rum 30:4]
before and after مِنْ قَبْلُ وَمِنْ بَعْدُ
[Ar-Rum 30:4]
So "min" is a preposition, and "Qabla" is a noun in the genitive case with "min." We do not say it is in the genitive case; it is a noun built on *dammah* in the position of the genitive case. A noun built on *dammah* in the position of the genitive case. We built it on *dammah* because we deleted the thing to which it is added and intended its meaning. The original of that, if we wanted to estimate the thing to which it is added, is "To Allah belongs the command from before," or the beginning of the verse, what is it?
(2) The Byzantines have been defeated (3) In the nearest land. But they, after their defeat, will overcome. (4) Within three to nine years. To Allah belongs the command غُلِبَتِ الرُّومُ * فِي أَدْنَى الأَرْضِ وَهُمْ مِنْ بَعْدِ غَلَبِهِمْ سَيَغْلِبُونَ * فِي بِضْعِ سِنِينَ لِلَّهِ الأَمْرُ
[Ar-Rum 30:2-4]
"From before their defeat and from after their defeat." So when the thing to which it is added was deleted and its meaning was intended, they were built on *dammah*. Do you understand? Good. If the thing to which it is added is deleted and its word form is intended, then it is inflected without *tanwin*. It is inflected without *tanwin*. So you would say, for example: "I came to you from before," meaning: from before the appointment, for example, "I came to you from before the appointment." The time is up, let us continue... "I came to you from before." Here now, I intended that the speech contains the appointment, because I intended the word form without the meaning. Good. If the word form is present, it is also inflected without *tanwin*. So you say: "I came to you from before the appointment." Why without *tanwin*? Because it is added to something, and what is added to something does not take *tanwin*, as it was said:
"I am like tanwin and you are addition *** So where do you see me? I do not settle in my place"
The fourth case: that the thing to which it is added is deleted and neither its word form nor its meaning is intended. In that case, it is inflected with *tanwin*. It is inflected with *tanwin*.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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