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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Clarification of the stronger position that the person of legal capacity is only obligated to perform the prayer whose time he catches.

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The Shaykh : Some scholars have stated that he is only obligated to make up the prayer whose time he caught, and that he is not obligated to make up any prayers before that. They argued based on a report (athar) and reasoning (nazar). As for the report, it is the saying of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him)
Whoever catches a raka of the prayer has caught the prayer. من أدرك ركعة من الصلاة فقد أدرك الصلاة
Muwatta Malik 1:15
and"the"In his statement, "the prayer for which the time was reached," he means the prayer for which he caught a unit of prayer within its time. As for the prayer before that, he did not catch any part of its time; its time had passed completely while he was not subject to obligation, so how can we hold him accountable? As for the reasoning, they said that this is the requirement of correct analogical reasoning, because we agree with you that if a person catches a unit of the midday prayer and then a barrier to obligation is found, he is only required to make up the midday prayer, even though the time of the midday prayer is a time for both the midday and afternoon prayers in cases of excuse and combining. So what is the difference between the two cases? In both cases, the time of one of the two prayers has passed while he was not subject to obligation. However, in the first case, the time of the first prayer has passed, and in the second case, the time of the second prayer has passed. So either you hold him accountable for making up the prayers in both cases, as some scholars have said, or you do not hold him accountable in either case, as others have also said. As for distinguishing between them, there is no basis for that. If they say, "We distinguished based on the report from the Companions," the answer is that the report from the Companions, if authentic, may be understood as being for precaution only, out of fear that the barrier may have been removed before the time of the first prayer ended. This is especially true in the case of menstruation, as a woman may not know about her menstruation until some time after her purity, because she may not realize that she has become pure until a quarter of an hour or ten minutes or so after she actually becomes pure. So perhaps what came from the Companions is to be understood as precaution, not as an obligation.
The second opinion in this issue is the stronger one: that he is only obligated to perform the prayer of which he caught a part of the time, and that he is not obligated to perform the one before it, just as he is not obligated to perform the one after it. So, if a barrier to legal capacity occurs, yes?

The questioner : ... .
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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